SAT Biology E/M Subject Test

Part III Answers to In-Chapter Questions

Chapter 15 Answers to In-Chapter Questions

CHAPTER 3

Quick Quiz #1

Check the appropriate boxes:

  1. Water (H2O) is an [  organic  inorganic ] compound.

  2. Cl2 [  is  is not ] a compound.

  3. H2O [  is  is not ] a compound.

  4. Methane (CH4) is an [  organic  inorganic ] compound.

  5. Cl2 [  is  is not ] a molecule.

  6. Carbon dioxide (CO2) is an [  organic  inorganic ] compound.

  7. Products are found on the [  right  left ] side of the arrow in a chemical reaction.

Quick Quiz #2

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. The bond that holds two amino acids together is called a   peptide   bond.

  2. The assembly of a protein from its amino acid constituents involves the [  addition  removal ] of water, and is called   dehydration  .

  3. An amino acid is a [  monomer  polymer ] of a protein.

  4. Because proteins are essentially chains of amino acids linked together by   peptide   bonds, a protein might also be called a   polypeptide  .

  5. The disassembly of a protein into its component amino acids is called   hydrolysis   and involves the [  addition  removal ] of water.

Quick Quiz #3

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. Starch serves as a means of storing glucose in [  plants  animals ].

  2. A molecule of maltose is formed from two molecules of   glucose  .

  3. Glucose and fructose [  are  are not ] identical molecules.

  4. A molecule of glucose and a molecule of fructose, both of which are   monosaccharides  , combine to form a molecule of   sucrose  , which is a   disaccharide  .

  5. Cellulose is a   polysaccharide  .

  6. Glycogen serves as a means for storing glucose in [  plants  animals ] .

  7. The chemical formula for both glucose and fructose is   C6H12O6  .

  8. The chemical formula for sucrose is   C12H22O11  .

  9. Cellulose and glycogen differ in the way that   glucose   molecules are bonded together.

10. The chemical formulas for sucrose and maltose [  are  are not ] identical.

Quick Quiz #4

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. Triglycerides are made of one molecule of   glycerol   and three   fatty acids  .

  2. Lipids in general are [  hydrophilic  hydrophobic ].

  3. The primary lipid found in cell membranes is   phospholipid  .

  4. Steroid hormones are derived from   cholesterol  .

  5. Steroid hormones [  are  are not ] hydrophobic.

  6. Fats are stored in the body in the form of   triglycerides  .

Quick Quiz #5

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. The fact that double-stranded DNA forms a double helix was discovered by   Watson   and   Crick  .

  2. The four DNA nucleotide bases are   adenine    thymine    cytosine  , and   guanine  .

  3. RNA [  is  is not ] a double-stranded molecule.

  4. RNA nucleotides [  do  do not ] contain the exact same bases as DNA nucleotides.

  5. In DNA, guanine forms a base pair with   cytosine  , whereas adenine forms a base pair with   thymine  .

  6. The nucleic acid “backbone” is made up of   sugar   and   phosphate  .

  7. The sugar in DNA is [  ribose  deoxyribose ].

  8. In RNA, adenine can form a base pair with   uracil  .

CHAPTER 4

Quick Quiz #1

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. Animal cells [  do  do not ] have cell walls.

  2. Bacteria have cell walls made of   peptidoglycan  .

  3. Engulfing large particles in a vesicle is known as   endocytosis  .

  4. Facilitated diffusion is a way for [  hydrophobic  hydrophilic ] substances to cross the cell membrane.

  5. Fungi have cell walls made of   chitin  , and plants have cell walls made of   cellulose  .

  6. Simple diffusion [  does  does not ] require energy.

  7. Hydrophobic substances cross the membrane by   simple diffusion  .

  8. A type of movement that requires energy and moves substances against their concentration gradients is called   active transport  .

  9. B

10. C

Quick Quiz #2

1. Golgi apparatus

K. sorts and packages membrane and secreted proteins

2. Centrioles

E. related generally to formation of the spindle during mitosis

3. Lysosomes

H. contain hydrolytic enzymes; digest foreign substances and worn organelles

4. Rough ER

G. holds ribosomes that synthesize membrane or secreted proteins

5. Cell membrane

C. selectively permeable barrier that regulates what enters and exits the cell

6. Ribosomes

J. sites of protein synthesis

7. Nucleolus

D. site of ribosome synthesis in the nucleus

8. Vacuole

B. stores waste and other substances

9. Smooth ER

A. cellular transport system

10. Mitochondria

F. cellular respiration and ATP production; has double membrane

11. Nucleus

I. contains genetic material (DNA); control center of the cell

Quick Quiz #3

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. The fact that enzymes interact with substrate by physically fitting together has given rise to the phrase “  lock   and   key  ” theory.

  2. Enzymes are known as organic   catalysts  .

  3. When an enzyme has catalyzed a chemical reaction and the products are formed, the enzyme itself [  is  is not ] consumed and is [  unavailable  available ] to catalyze additional reactions.

  4. The location on an enzyme where substrate binds is called the   active site  .

CHAPTER 5

Quick Quiz #1

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. The process of glycolysis produces ATP and NADH by converting one molecule of   glucose   to two molecules of   pyruvate  .

  2. The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is found in the   matrix   of the mitochondria.

  3. The process of glycolysis [  does  does not ] require oxygen.

  4.   Glycogen   is made of many glucose molecules bonded together, and its function is to store energy.

  5. When a molecule (such as an electron carrier) accepts a pair of electrons, we say it has become [  reduced  oxidized ].

  6. During the PDC, a molecule of pyruvate is converted to   acetyl Co-A  , a molecule of   NADH   is produced, and   CO2   is lost.

  7. The PDC [  is  is not ] an aerobic process.

Quick Quiz #2

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. The Krebs cycle [  does  does not ] require oxygen.

  2. The principal substance that enters the Krebs cycle is   acetyl Co-A  .

  3. Oxygen is also known as the   final electron acceptor  .

  4. One of the goals of electron transport is to [  reduce  oxidize ] the electron carriers back to “empty.”

  5. Electron transport occurs along the   inner membrane   of the mitochondria.

  6. The products of the Krebs cycle are three molecules of   NADH  , one molecule of   ATP  , and one molecule of   FADH2  .

  7. ATP synthase relies on the facilitated diffusion of   H+   ions down their gradient to produce ATP.

  8. In the last step of the electron transport chain, oxygen accepts electrons to form   water  .

Quick Quiz #3

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. Fermentation produces   ethanol   in yeast and   lactic acid   in muscle cells.

  2. Anaerobic organisms [  do  do not ] conduct glycolysis.

  3. Anaerobic respiration (fermentation) produces [  less  more ] ATP than aerobic respiration.

  4. In fermentation, NADH is   oxidized   to NAD+, whereas pyruvate is   reduced  .

  5. Anaerobic organisms [  do  do not ] conduct the Krebs cycle.

CHAPTER 6

Quick Quiz #1

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. If two individuals are of the same species, then the chromosomes in one individual’s cells [  are  are not] identical to the chromosomes in the other individual’s cells.

  2. The enzyme that runs DNA replication is called   DNA polymerase  .

  3. Humans have   46   total chromosomes found as   2   sets of   23   chromosomes each.

  4. One strand of DNA serves as a   template   for the creation of a complementary strand.

  5. If two cells are taken from the same individual, the chromosomes in one cell [  are  are not ] identical to the chromosomes in the other cell.

  6. Homologous chromosomes [  are  are not ] identical.

Quick Quiz #2

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. Production of a strand of RNA from a strand of DNA is called   transcription  .

  2. The sequence of RNA that is complementary to the DNA sequence CAGTATACG is   GUCAUAUGC  .

  3. Portions of DNA that carry instructions for protein synthesis are called [  genes  codons ].

  4.   tRNA   carries amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes during protein translation.

  5. The sequence of codons on mRNA is read in [  overlapping  nonoverlapping ] sequence.

  6. The three “stop” codons are   UAA    UGA  , and   UAG  .

  7. Synthesis of protein using a strand of RNA is called   translation  .

  8. The “start” codon is [  AUG  UAG ], and it codes for   methionine  .

Quick Quiz #3

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. In order to base-pair, the anticodon on a tRNA must be   complementary   to an mRNA codon.

  2. Peptide bonds are formed between [  tRNAs  amino acids ].

  3. The next amino acid for the protein being translated binds (attaches to its tRNA) in the [  A-site  P-site ].

  4. The growing protein is attached to the ribosome through a tRNA in the [  A-site  P-site ].

  5. When a stop codon appears in the [  A-site  P-site ], the protein is   released   from the ribosome.

CHAPTER 7

Quick Quiz #1

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. A human cell, after interphase, has a total of   46   chromosomes, each made up of two   chromatids  .

  2. During the stage called interphase, [  all  only some ] of the cell’s chromosomes replicate.

  3. According to current biological terminology, a human cell, after interphase, has in its nucleus a total of [  92  46 ] chromosomes, each chromosome having at its center a   centromere   that joins the chromatids together.

  4. DNA replication is [  the only process  one of many processes ] that takes place during interphase.

Quick Quiz #2

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. The cell’s chromosomes become visible during a stage called   prophase  .

  2. The spindle apparatus forms during a stage called [  anaphase  prophase  metaphase ].

  3. The division of the cell’s cytoplasm is known as   cytokinesis  , and this occurs during [  prophase  anaphase  telophase ].

  4. Duplicate chromosomes (the chromatids) separate from each other and move to opposite poles of the cell during a stage called   anaphase  .

  5. During a stage called   interphase  , all of a cell’s chromosomes replicate.

  6. The centromeres divide during a stage called   anaphase  .

  7. During prophase, the   centrioles   move away from one another toward opposite sides of the cell.

Quick Quiz #3

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. If, for a particular organism, the diploid number of chromosomes is 10, then the haploid number is   5  .

  2. The first metaphase of meiosis (metaphase I) differs from metaphase of mitosis in that a   pair   of chromosomes lines up on each spindle fiber.

  3. The four cells resulting from meiosis are   haploid  .

  4. Crossing over occurs after   synaspsis  .

  5. The word [  haploid  diploid ] refers to a cell for which each chromosome does NOT have a homologous partner.

  6. The first anaphase of meiosis (anaphase I) differs from anaphase of mitosis in that centromeres [  do  do not ] divide.

  7. Prophase I of meiosis [  is  is not ] similar to prophase of mitosis.

Quick Quiz #4

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. The cells produced at the end of telophase I are considered to be [  haploid  diploid ].

  2. Spermatogenesis begins at   puberty   and lasts   for the life of the man  .

  3.   4   mature sperm are produced from a single spermatogonium.

  4. The female gonad is the   ovary  .

  5. Oogenesis begins at   puberty   and ends at   menopause  .

  6. [  Four  One ] mature ova (ovum) are (is) produced from a single primary oocyte.

  7. Spermatogenesis takes place on a [  daily  monthly ] basis, whereas oogenesis takes place on a [  daily  monthly ] basis.

  8. The cells that disintegrate during oogenesis are called   polar bodies  .

CHAPTER 8

Quick Quiz #1

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. A

  2. The term allele [  is  is not ] precisely synonymous with the term gene.

  3. C

  4. If, in a particular organism, one allele on one member of a homologous chromosome pair codes for blue eye color, and a corresponding allele on the other codes for brown eye color, the organism is said to be [  homozygous  heterozygous ] for eye color.

  5. If an organism is heterozygous for eye color, with one allele coding for green and the other allele coding for gray, the organism will have [  green eyes  gray eyes ] if green is dominant, and [  green eyes  gray eyes ] if gray is dominant.

  6. If, for a particular species, the allele that produces a disease called erythemia is dominant and the corresponding allele that produces the absence of disease (a normal organism) is recessive, then

(a) an organism with a genotype that is heterozygous for the trait will have the phenotype [  normal  erythemia ].

(b) An organism with a genotype that is homozygous for the dominant allele will have the phenotype [  normal  erythemia ].

(c) An organism with a genotype that is homozygous for the recessive allele will have the phe notype [  normal  erythemia ].

(d) An organism with a phenotype that is normal must have a genotype that is [  homozygous  heterozygous ].

Quick Quiz #2

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. A male person receives from his father a(n) [  X  Y ] chromosome.

  2. A male person [  may  must ] have the genotype [  XY  XX  YY ].

  3. A female person [  may  must ] have the genotype [  XY  XX  YY ].

  4. In terms of sex, all persons, male or female, receive from their mothers a(n)   X   chromosome.

  5. In terms of sex, all females receive from their fathers a(n)   X   chromosome.

Genotype Check-In

• With reference to the parents whose genotypes are shown on this page.

(a)   50%   of children are likely to be male.

(b)   50%   of children are likely to be female.

(c) There is [  no  some ] likelihood that a child will have phenotype hemophilia.

(d) There is [  no  some ] likelihood that a female child will have phenotype hemophilia.

(e) There is [  no  some ] likelihood that a male child will have phenotype hemophilia.

(f) The likelihood that a male child will be born with hemophilia is   25%  .

Quick Quiz #3

Consider the pedigree below, then fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. This condition is [  dominant  recessive ].
Because the condition “skips” generations it is recessive. Look at individual 10. Neither his parents nor his offspring have the condition.

  2. This condition is [  autosomal  X-linked ].
Because equal numbers of males and females display the condition, it is autosomal. X-linked conditions are seen more frequently in males.

  3. The genotype of individual 10 is [  homozygous  heterozygous ].
Because the condition is recessive, and individual 10 is affected by the condition (displays the phenotype), then he must be homozygous for the condition.

  4. The genotype of individual 17 is [  homozygous  heterozygous ].
Individual 17 is the child of an affected (homozygous recessive) parent and an unaffected parent. Remember that individuals who marry into a family are considered to be completely normal; therefore, individual 11 does not carry the allele and is homozygous for the dominant (normal) condition. Let’s draw a Punnett square to determine the genotypes of their offspring. We’ll use N to represent the normal allele and n to represent the abnormal allele.

As you can see, all offspring would have the genotype Nn (heterozygous) and would not display the condition.

  5. The genotypes of individuals 1 and 2 are [  homozygous  heterozygous ].
Individuals 1 and 2 must be heterozygous for the condition. Neither of them display the affected phenotype; therefore, they must each have at least one normal allele (genotype N/?). Because they have offspring that are affected by the condition, they must also each have one abnormal allele (genotype Nn). The only way to produce homozygous recessive offspring is if each parent donates a recessive allele. Here’s the Punnett square:

  6. If individual 3 were to marry a normal male who does not carry the allele for the condition, the probability they would produce affected offspring would be   zero  
Individual 3 is affected by this recessive condition, so she must have a homozygous recessive genotype (nn). A normal male who does not carry the allele for this condition would have the homozygous dominant genotype (NN). All their offspring would be heterozygous and normal. Here’s the Punnett square:

  7. If individual 4 were to marry a female carrier of the condition (a female heterozygous for the condition), the probability they would produce affected offspring would be   50%  
Individual 4 is affected by the condition and therefore has the homozygous recessive genotype (nn). If he were to marry a heterozygous female, the probability of producing an affected child would be 50%. Here’s the Punnett square:

CHAPTER 9

Quick Quiz #1

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. According to the heterotroph hypothesis, hydrogen [  was  was not ] a chief component of the atmosphere when life began.

  2. At present, the gas of highest concentration in Earth’s atmosphere is [  helium  oxygen  nitrogen ].

  3. According to the heterotroph hypothesis, water [  was  was not ] a chief component of the atmosphere when life began.

  4. The primary organisms on early Earth were   anaerobic  .

  5. According to the heterotroph hypothesis, methane [  was  was not ] a chief component of the atmosphere when life began.

  6. According to the heterotroph hypothesis, oxygen [  was  was not ] a chief component of the atmosphere when life began.

  7. The primary organisms on Earth today are   aerobic  .

  8. According to the heterotroph hypothesis, ammonia [  was  was not ] a chief component of the atmosphere when life began.

Quick Quiz #2

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. The phrase “  genetic variability   ” refers to the fact that within any population of any species, genotypes vary (i.e., the gene pool features a wide variety of alleles).

  2. Genetic variability [  is  is not ] caused by a species’ ability to adapt to existing environmental conditions.

  3. Genetic variability [  is  is not ] attributable to random mutation.

  4. Once a mutation has occurred, all members of the population [  will  will not ] display the results of that mutation.

  5. Genetic variability [  is  is not ] a property of all populations.

  6. If a mutation were to occur in a somatic cell instead of a gamete (sperm or ovum), that mutation [  could  could not ] cause genetic variability in the population.

Quick Quiz #3

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. Evolution [  always  sometimes ] results in the production of a new species.

  2. Speciation [  increases  decreases ] biological diversity.

  3. In the course of divergent evolution, two populations become [  more  less ] similar to each other with regard to behaviors and traits.

  4. Evolution means a change in a population’s   gene pool  .

  5. If a population is geographically divided, it [  cannot  may ] give rise to two separate species.

  6. Evolution that results in two species becoming more similar to each other in terms of behaviors and traits is called   convergent   evolution.

  7. Divergent evolution can result from [  only physical  only behavioral  both physical and behavioral ] selection pressures from the environment.

  8. Convergent evolution [  can  cannot ] result in speciation.

Quick Quiz #4

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. The science of classification is called [  taxidermy  taxonomy ].

  2. The conventional ordering of phylogeny is domain, kingdom,   phylum    class    order    family    genus    species  .

  3. The members of a kingdom [  do  do not ] have more in common than do the members of an order.

  4. The members of an order [  do  do not ] have more in common than do the members of a class.

Quick Quiz #5

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. A

  2. Soft-bodied animals with hard external shells are classified as   mollusks  .

  3. With respect to the evolution of chordates, fish appeared [  before  after ] birds, and birds appeared [  before  after ] mammals.

  4. Animals with jointed appendages, hard exoskeletons, and segmented bodies are classified as   arthropods  .

  5. Prokaryotes [  do  do not ] have a nucleus.

  6. A

  7. D

  8. Having flower parts in multiples of four or five is a characteristic of [  monocots  dicots ].

  9. Protists [  do  do not ] have a nucleus.

10. Mosses and liverworts are examples of   nonvascular   plants.

11. Cyanobacteria [  can  cannot ] photosynthesize.

12. Earthworms and other segmented worms belong to phylum [  Annelida  Arthropoda ].

13. The order in which chordates appeared on Earth is (1) fish, (2)   amphibia  , (3)   reptiles  , (4)   birds  , (5)   mammals  .

14. Plants with parallel veins in their leaves and flower parts in multiples of three are classified as [  monocots  dicots ].

15. Conifers, such as pine trees, are classified as [  angiosperms  gymnosperms ].

CHAPTER 10

Quick Quiz #1

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. Fungi are classified as [  eukaryotes  prokaryotes ].

  2. Bacteria [  do  do not ] have mitochondria.

  3. Bacteria [  do  do not ] have ribosomes.

  4. Bacteria [  do  do not ] have cell walls.

  5. Yeast are [  eukaryotes  prokaryotes ] that reproduce by   budding  .

  6. A viral   capsid   is made of protein.

  7. [  Transformation  Transduction ] occurs when a virus transfers some DNA from one bacterium to another.

  8. Fungi [  can  cannot ] photosynthesize.

  9. Bacteria that are perfectly happy in the presence OR absence of oxygen are called   facultative anaerobes  .

10. Number the following steps of the lytic cycle in the order they would occur:

  2   Virus injects nucleic acid into host cell.

  5   Host cell is lysed and new viruses are released.

  1     Viral capsid attaches to host cell.

  4   New capsids are formed.

  3   Viral nucleic acids are replicated using host cell machinery.

11. [  Some  All ] fungi are eukaryotes.

12. A [  parasitic  mutualistic ] relationship exists between some plants and   nitrogen-fixing   bacteria. These types of plants are called   legumes  .

13. When a bacterium replicates its DNA and gives some of the DNA to another bacterium through a pilus, this is called   conjugation  .

14. Fungi have a cell wall made of [  proteoglycan  chitin ].

15. Bacteria are classified as [  prokaryotes  eukaryotes ] and therefore [  do  do not ] have nuclei.

16. An enzyme that makes a strand of RNA by reading a strand of DNA is called   DNA-dependent RNA polymerase  .

17. Retroviruses go through the [  lytic  lysogenic ] lifecycle.

Quick Quiz #2

  1. A   staggered   cut of DNA by a restriction enzyme produces sticky ends.

  2. A piece of DNA cut with a restriction enzyme that produces sticky ends can be ligated to any piece of DNA cut with [  the same restriction enzyme  any other restriction enzyme that produces sticky ends ].

  3. The enzyme that seals together cut pieces of DNA is called   DNA ligase  .

  4. A sequence of DNA that reads the same from both directions is called a   palindrome  .

  5. [  True  False ] A piece of DNA cut with a restriction enzyme that produces blunt ends can be ligated into a plasmid cut with any other restriction enzyme.

CHAPTER 11

Quick Quiz #1

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. The   NA+/K+ ATPase   is a membrane protein that pumps three sodium ions out of the cell and two potassium ions into the cell.

  2. Sodium ions [  can  cannot ] cross back into the cell after being pumped out.

  3. Dendrites [  receive  transmit ] an electrical impulse.

  4. The direction in which an impulse travels through a neuron is   dendrites   to   cell body   to   axon  .

  5. Potassium concentration is [  higher  lower ] inside the cell than outside.

  6. The resting membrane potential of the cell is   –70 mV  .

  7. Sodium concentration is [  higher  lower ] inside the cell than outside.

  8. The axon of a neuron carries the nerve impulse [  toward  away from ] the cell body.

Quick Quiz #2

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. Depolarization results from an [  influx  efflux ] of [  sodium  potassium ] ions.

  2. Rapid, “jumping” conduction is called   saltatory conduction  .

  3. Threshold potential is [  –70 mV  –50 mV ].

  4. A return to the resting, polarized state is called   repolarization  .

  5. The small portion of a neuron’s membrane that is undergoing an action potential is relatively [  positive  negative ] on the inside and [  positive  negative ] on the outside.

  6. The time during which a portion of the membrane is unable to fire an action potential (because of the fact that it has just fired one) is called the   refractory period  .

  7. In a myelinated axon, action potentials occur only at the [  Schwann cells  nodes of Ranvier].

  8. Repolarization results from an [  influx  efflux ] of [  sodium  potassium ] ions.

  9. Ion channels that open at a particular membrane potential are said to be   voltage-gated  .

Quick Quiz #3

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. A neuron whose resting potential is moving away from threshold is said to be [  stimulated  inhibited ].

  2. The small space between the axon terminus of one neuron and the dendrites of the next neuron is called the   synaptic cleft  .

  3. A synapse can be found between a [  neuron and an organ  neuron and a neuron  both of these ].

  4. The most common neurotransmitter in the body is   acetylcholine  .

  5. A neurotransmitter is released from [  vesicles  receptors ] and binds to [  vesicles  receptors ].

  6. Receptors that open sodium channels would cause the neuron to   depolarize  .

  7. A neuron will fire an action potential only if its membrane potential reaches   threshold  .

Quick Quiz #4

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. The CNS consists of the   brain   and the   spinal cord  .

  2. Motor neurons are part of the [  CNS  PNS ].

  3. Interneurons are part of the [  CNS  PNS ].

  4. The   hypothalamus   maintains body homeostasis.

  5. Conscious awareness of our selves and our surroundings is controlled by the [  cerebrum  cerebellum ] of the brain.

  6. The [  somatic  sympathetic ] division of the PNS controls the skeletal muscles.

  7. E

  8. The [  sympathetic  somatic  parasympathetic ] division of the PNS is in control of a person watching TV.

  9. C

10. Neurons of the PNS are [  entirely separated from  connected to ] neurons of the CNS.

11. Conscious thought processes are carried out by the   cerebrum  .

Quick Quiz #5

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. Peptide hormones have receptors [  outside  inside ] the cell, and steroids have receptors [  outside  inside ] the cell.

  2. The organs that are affected by a particular hormone are referred to as that hormone’s   target organs  .

  3. The endocrine system is [  faster  slower ] than the nervous system.

  4. Peptide hormones cause their effects [  more  less ] rapidly than steroid hormones.

  5. Steroid hormones cause their effects by   modifying transcription  .

  6. Steroid hormones are derived from [  cholesterol  amino acids ].

Quick Quiz #6

On each blank line place the letter that designates the appropriate hormone.

  1. The pancreatic islet cells secrete   F   and   I  .

  2. The ovaries secrete   A   and   N  .

  3. The anterior pituitary secretes   B    E    H    K    L  , and   R  .

  4. The thyroid gland secretes   S   and   T  .

  5. The adrenal cortex secretes   C   and   O  .

  6. The posterior pituitary secretes   J   and   Q  .

  7. The adrenal medulla secretes   D   and   P  .

  8. The testes secrete   M  .

  9. The parathyroid gland secretes   G  .

A.   estrogen

B.   ACTH

C.   aldosterone

D.   epinephrine

E.   prolactin

F.   glucagon

G.   parathormone

H.   LH

I.   insulin

J.   oxytocin

K.   growth hormone

L.   FSH

M.   testosterone

N.   progesterone

O.   cortisol

P.   norepinephrine

Q.   ADH

R.   TSH

S.   thyroxine

T.   calcitonin

Quick Quiz #7

On each blank line place the letter that designates the appropriate target organ. Letters can be used more than once.

  1. estrogen / progesterone   E  

  2. ACTH   G  

  3. aldosterone   H  

  4. epinephrine / norepinephrine   A  

  5. prolactin   F  

  6. glucagon   K  

  7. parathormone   B  

  8. LH / FSH   L  

  9. insulin   A  

10. oxytocin   E  

11. growth hormone   A  

12. testosterone   C  

13. cortisol   A  

14. ADH   H  

15. TSH   D  

16. thyroxine   A  

17. calcitonin   B  

A.   all cells in the body

B.   bones

C.   male body

D.   thyroid gland

E.   uterus

F.   mammary glands

G.   adrenal cortex

H.   kidneys

I.   female body

J.   testes

K.   liver

L.   ovaries and testes

Quick Quiz #8

On each blank line place the letter that designates the appropriate effect in the body.

  1. estrogen   K  

  2. ACTH   E  

  3. aldosterone   Q  

  4. epinephrine / nonepinephine   N  

  5. prolactin   A  

  6. glucagon   H  

  7. parathormone   S  

  8. LH   L  

  9. insulin   R  

10. oxytocin   B  

11. growth hormone   G  

12. testosterone   D  

13. cortisol   C  

14. ADH   J  

15. TSH   O  

16. thyroxine   F  

17. FSH   P  

18. progesterone   M  

19. calcitonin   I  

A.   production of breast milk

B.   contract uterus, releases breast milk

C.   causes gluconeogenesis, increases blood glucose levels

D.   maintains male sex characteristics

E.   causes release of hormones from adrenal cortex

F.   increases body metabolism

G.   growth of the body

H.   breakdown of glycogen, increases blood glucose levels

I.   builds bone, decreases blood calcium

J.   causes kidneys to retain water

K.   maintains female sex characteristics, builds uterine lining

L.   releases testosterone in male, forms corpus luteum in female

M.   maintains and enhances uterine lining

N.   prolongs and enhances “fight or flight” response

O.   causes thyroid gland to release thyroxine

P.   causes spermatogenesis in male, oogenesis in female

Q.   causes kidney to retain sodium

R.   allows cells to take up glucose, decreases blood glucose levels

S.   breaks down bone, increases blood calcium

Quick Quiz #9

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. [  Red blood cells  White blood cells ] function in the immune system.

  2. Hemoglobin contains   iron   and can bind   oxygen  .

  3. C

  4. B-cells make   antibodies  .

  5. Insufficient iron in the diet leads to insufficient   hemoglobin   and the disease   anemia  .

  6. [  Killer  Helper ] T-cells are T-cells that help B-cells and other T-cells reproduce.

  7. T-cells are [  white  red ] blood cells.

  8. Blood cells involved in blood clotting are called   platelets  .

  9. B

Genetics Questions

Practice Question 1: A man with blood type AB marries a woman who is homozygous for blood type A (genotype IAIA). What is the probability they will produce a child with blood type B?

The man with blood type AB has the genotype IAIB. The woman’s genotype is given (IAIA). Let’s construct a Punnett square:

There are only two possible genotypes for their children: IAIA and IAIB. IAIA corresponds to blood type A, and IAIB coresponds to blood type AB, so the probability of producing a child with blood type B is 0%.

Practice Question 2: Which blood type(s) are NOT possible from a cross between a person with blood type AB and a person heterozygous for blood type B ( IBi)?

A person with blood type AB has the genotype IAIB. The heterozygous genotype for blood type B is given as IBi. Let’s construct a Punnett square:

The possible genotypes of their children are IAIB (blood type AB), IAi (blood type A), and IBi (blood type B). The only blood type not resulting from this cross is blood type O (genotype ii).

Practice Question 3: Could a woman with blood type B and a man with blood type A produce a child with blood type O?

Yes. A woman with blood type B could have one of the following genotypes: IBIB or IBi. A man with blood type A could have one of the following genotypes: IAIA or IAi. Blood type O can only result from the genotype ii, and that genotype could result from a cross between IBi (type B) and IAi (type A) individuals. Here’s the Punnett square:

Quick Quiz #10

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. The genotype(s) for blood type O is (are)    ii  .

  2. Blood type AB is sometimes called the [  universal donor  universal recipient ].

  3. Blood type A can receive blood from blood type (s)   A and O  .

  4. Blood type B can donate blood to blood type(s)   B and AB  .

  5. The probability of a man homozygous for blood type B and a woman homozygous for blood type A producing a child with blood type A is [  0%  25%  50%  75%  100% ].

  6. The genotype(s) for blood type A is (are)   IAIA and IAi  .

  7. Blood type AB can donate blood to blood type [  AB  A  B  O  all of them ].

  8. Alleles IA and IB are said to be   codominant  .

Quick Quiz #11

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. [  Veins  Capillaries  Arteries ] are blood vessels that return blood to the heart.

  2.   Lymphatic vessels   return excess tissue fluid to the blood vessels.

  3. The type of blood being carried [  does  does not ] matter when determining whether a blood vessel is an artery or a vein.

  4. Blood pressure in the veins is [  high  low ].

  5. Blood pressure in the arteries is [  high  low ].

  6. Blood flow in the capillaries is [  fast  slow ].

  7. [  Lymph nodes  Lymph vessels ] filter potentially harmful things from the lymph before it is returned to the veins.

  8. The diameter of an artery is [  larger  smaller ] than the combined diameters of the capillaries.

  9. Lymphatic vessels [  do  do not ] have valves.

10. Blood moves through the veins and lymph moves through the lymphatic vessels when nearby   skeletal muscles   contract and squeeze the vessels.

Quick Quiz #12

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. Blood leaves the heart from [  ventricles  atria ] and enters the heart at [  ventricles  atria ].

  2. The aorta carries [  oxygen-rich  oxygen-poor ] blood [  away from  toward ] the heart, and the two vena cavae carry [  oxygen-rich  oxygen-poor ] blood [  away from  toward ] the heart.

  3. B

  4. The   capillaries   are the site of exchange between blood and tissue.

  5. The pulmonary arteries carry [  oxygen-rich  oxygen-poor ] blood [  away from  toward ] the heart, and the pulmonary veins carry [  oxygen-rich  oxygen-poor ] blood [  away from  toward ] the heart.

  6. Blood that enters the right atrium after touring the entire body is [  oxygen-rich  oxygen-poor ].

  7. The [  semilunar  atrioventricular ] valves separate the ventricles from the arteries.

  8. E

  9. Moving air into and out of the lungs is called   ventilation  .

10. The [  pulmonary  systemic ] circuit sends blood to the lungs.

11. The   respiratory   zone of the lungs is where gas exchange takes place.

12. The first heart sound is the closing of the [  semilunar
 atrioventricular ] valves at the [  end  beginning ] of heart contraction.

13. From the right ventricle [  oxygen-rich  oxygen-poor ] blood is passed to the [  pulmonary arteries  pulmonary veins ] and then to the lungs.

14. The larynx is part of the [  conduction  respiratory ] zone.

15. Oxygen-rich blood enters the heart at the   left atrium  .

16. Blood gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) are [  hydrophilic  hydrophobic ].

Quick Quiz #13

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is carried as   carbonic acid   and   bicarbonate  .

  2. If your blood is too acidic, your pH is [  higher  lower ] and you will breathe [  slower  faster ].

  3. The system that can change pH more quickly is the [  respiratory  renal ] system.

  4. The primary muscle of respiration is the   diaphragm  .

  5. Breath rate is adjusted by the   medulla oblongata  .

  6. When the diaphragm contracts it [  curves upward  flattens downward ].

  7. Normal blood pH is approximately   7.4  .

  8. When the chest cavity gets smaller, air in the lungs rushes [  inward  outward ].

Quick Quiz #14

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. The pancreas is [  part of the alimentary canal  an accessory organ ].

  2. The order of the organs in the alimentary canal is   mouth    esophagus    stomach    small_intestine    large intestine  .

  3. The stomach [  does  does not ] secrete a digestive enzyme.

  4. The salivary glands secrete an enzyme called [  pepsin  amylase ] that helps in the digestion of [  carbohydrates  proteins ].

  5. The colon is the [  small  large ] intestine.

  6. The vitamin needed for blood clotting is vitamin   K  , and it is made by bacteria in the [  small  large ] intestine.

  7. D

  8. A

  9. The stomach is [  alkaline  acidic ], which means that its pH is [  low  high ].

10. The pancreas produces [  bicarbonate  bile ].

11. The function of the large intestine is to   reabsorb water  .

12. Vitamin C is necessary to make [  collagen  retinal ].

13. Pepsin is an   enzyme  , secreted by the   stomach  . It helps in the digestion of   proteins  .

14. Bile [  digests  emulsifies ] fats.

15. The   liver   produces proteins and regulates glycogen metabolism.

Quick Quiz #15

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. The three processes used by the nephron to make urine are   filtration    reabsorption  , and   secretion  .

  2. The [  loop of Henle  collecting duct ] sets up a concentration gradient in the medulla.

  3. [  Secretion  Reabsorption ] means taking a substance from the urine and returning it to the blood.

  4. Glucose is always [  secreted  reabsorbed ].

  5. The kidney helps to regulate blood pressure by releasing [  aldosterone  renin ].

  6. The [  ureter  urethra ] carries urine from the bladder to the outside of the body.

  7. Filtration occurs at the   glomerulus  .

  8. ADH increases the amount of [  water  sodium ] reabsorbed from filtrate.

  9. Most reabsorption and secretion occur in the   proximal convoluted tubule  .

10. ADH levels are [  high  low ] when the body is dehydrated, and this causes the urine to be [  dilute  concentrated ].

11. The three main waste products found in urine are   urea    uric acid  , and   creatinine  .

Quick Quiz #16

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. Smooth muscle is found in the   walls of hollow organs  .

  2. The deepest layer of the skin is the [  dermis  epidermis  hypodermis ].

  3. Spiders have [  exoskeletons  endoskeletons ].

  4. The two proteins found in muscle cell sarcomeres are   actin   and   myosin  .

  5. When the body gets too warm, dermal blood vessels [  constrict  dilate ], and shivering [  is initiated  stops ].

  6. Muscles are attached to bones by [  ligaments  tendons ].

  7. In a sarcomere, [  actin  myosin ] attaches to the Z-lines.

  8. The neurotransmitter used to stimulate muscle contraction is   acetylcholine  .

  9. [  Cardiac  Skeletal ] muscle is voluntary (under conscious control).

10. Bones are attached to other bones by [  ligaments  tendons ].

11. Cardiac muscle is found in [  the heart only  both the heart and the blood vessels ].

Quick Quiz #17

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. Progesterone is secreted during the [  secretory  luteal ] phase of the ovarian cycle.

  2. C

  3. The ovary is controlled by [  FSH and LH  estrogen and progesterone ] from the anterior pituitary, and it secretes [  FSH and LH  estrogen and progesterone ] that affect the uterus.

  4.   hCG   prolongs the life of the corpus luteum if fertilization and implantation occur.

  5. The   vas deferens   is a large duct that conducts sperm from the testes to the urethra.

  6. A surge in [  FSH  LH ] causes ovulation.

  7. The remnants of a follicle after ovulation become the   corpus luteum  .

  8. [  Estrogen  Progesterone ] causes the uterine lining to grow during the proliferative phase.

  9.   Semen   is a nourishing fluid that carries sperm. It is secreted by glands in the male reproductive system.

10. Estrogen causes growth of the uterine lining during the [  proliferative  follicular ] phase of the uterine cycle.

11. D

Quick Quiz #18

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. B

  2. D

  3. The human eye develops from [  mesoderm  ectoderm ].

  4. Blood vessels develop from [  endoderm  mesoderm ].

  5. C

  6. The membrane that most directly surrounds the embryo is the [  chorion  amnion ].

  7. Organogenesis occurs during [  neurulation  gastrulation ].

  8. Implantation occurs [  before  after ] cleavage.

  9. A blastocyst forms [  before  after ] a morula.

10. Neurulation occurs [  before  after ] the fetal stage.

11. The   acrosome   is the region at the top of the sperm that contains digestive enzymes to help the sperm penetrate the ovum.

12. The nervous system develops from [  endoderm  ectoderm ].

13. The kidneys develop from [  mesoderm  endoderm ].

CHAPTER 12

Quick Quiz #1

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. The inner fluid of the chloroplast is called [  grana  stroma ].

  2. The layer of wax on the leaf surface is called the   cuticle  .

  3. Most photosynthesis occurs in the [  palisade layer  spongy layer ].

  4. The Calvin cycle is a series of [  light-dependent  light-independent ] reactions.

  5. Oxygen is released during the [  light-dependent  light-independent ] reactions.

  6. The light-dependent reactions convert solar energy to usable energy, namely ATP and   NADPH  .

  7. The   thylakoids   are the membranes inside the chloroplast where the light-dependent reactions take place.

  8. Plants are [  autotrophs  heterotrophs ] and [  can  cannot ] make their own food.

  9. Stomates are opened and closed by cells called   guard cells  .

10. Forming carbohydrate from carbon dioxide is also known as   carbon fixation  .

Quick Quiz #2

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. The female part of a flower is the [  stamen  pistil ].

  2. The tissue within plant veins that carries water from the roots up to the rest of the plant is the [  phloem  xylem ].

  3. The specific cells that transport water are the   tracheids   and the   vessel elements  .

  4. The ovary develops into a [  fruit  seed ].

  5. The polar bodies, when fertilized, become a nutrient-rich tissue called   endosperm  .

  6.   Phloem   is the type of tissue that carries food from photosynthesis in the leaves to the rest of the plant.

  7. The specific cells that transport food are the [  companion cells  sieve cells ].

  8. The anther and the filament are [  male  female ] parts of the flower.

  9. In a flowering plant, pollen is produced by and located on the [  stigma  anther ].

10. The [  seed  fruit ] develops from the ovule.

11. A pollen tube grows down through the [  stigma  style ].

CHAPTER 13

Quick Quiz #1

  1.   D   A dog learns that if it brings the newspaper into the house each evening it gets a bone.

  2.   B   A bird treats the human it saw when it first hatched as its mother.

  3.   A   A frog squeezes the swollen belly of a female frog to release eggs.

  4.   D   A cockroach learns to run from light because every time a light comes on someone tries to step on it.

  5.   E   A man wishes to turn a screw and, having no screwdriver, realizes that he can use the edge of dull knife as a substitute.

  6.   C   A cat runs into the kitchen and looks for food when it hears the electric can opener.

  7.   A   A bird puffs up its brightly colored chest to attract a mate.

Quick Quiz #2

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. A chemical released that causes an organism’s own heart rate to increase is an example of a [  pheromone  hormone ].

  2. Roots growing toward the earth is described as [  positive  negative ] gravitropism.

  3. A rooster crowing in the morning is an example of a   circadian   rhythm.

  4. A fruit tree flowering in the spring is an example of a   seasonal   rhythm.

  5. Growth of a plant toward light is called   phototropism  .

  6. Bacteria that release chemicals to draw other bacteria toward a food source are releasing [  pheromones  hormones ].

  7. Athlete’s foot is the common name that describes a fungal infection of the skin of the feet, especially between the toes. The skin becomes cracked and sore. This is an example of a [  mutualistic  commensalistic  parasitic ] relationship.

  8. Epiphytes are small plants that grow on the branches of big trees. The epiphytes are exposed to sunlight, and the big tree is neither helped nor harmed. This is an example of a [  mutualistic  commensalistic  parasitic ] relationship.

  9. Any two organisms living in an intimate association with each other are said to be in a   symbiotic   relationship.

10. An ivy growing along a trellis is an example of   thigmotropism  .

CHAPTER 14

Quick Quiz #1

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. D

  2. A

  3. C

  4. Members of the same community are also members of the same [  population  ecosystem ].

  5. Alternate evolution of two interacting species is called   coevolution  .

  6. Individuals [  can  cannot ] evolve.

  7. Hawks and wolves hunting the same population of rabbits is an example of [  competition  predation  both of these ].

Quick Quiz #2

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. Herbivores eat the [  primary consumers  primary producers ].

  2. Organisms that feed off dead and decaying material are called   decomposers  .

  3. Primary producers are [  autotrophs  heterotrophs ].

  4. There are more [  primary producers  primary consumers ].

  5. The least amounts of energy is available at the [  bottom  top ] of the food chain.

  6. Organisms that eat both plants and animals are called   omnivores  .

  7. Decomposers include both   bacteria   and   fungi  .

  8. An herbivore is a(n) [  autotroph  heterotroph ].

  9. In a food chain consisting of grass, grasshoppers, frogs, and bass, grasshoppers are [  more  less ] numerous than frogs, and frogs are [  more  less ] numerous than bass.

Quick Quiz #3

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. When a plant community begins on a barren rock, the first organism to colonize the rock is most often [  lichen  moss ].

  2. In an ecological succession, each new plant community in an area [  coexists with  replaces ] the previous plant community.

  3. The final community in ecological succession is called the   climax   community.

  4. Gradual, unpredictable change in plants that occurs over millions of years is called [  ecological succession  evolution ].

  5. The   pioneer   organism is the one that first appears as the founder of a biological community.

  6. The final plant community in ecological succession is made up primarily of   deciduous trees  .

Quick Quiz #4

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. D

  2. Water and chemical nutrients are classified as [  biotic  abiotic ] elements of an ecosystem.

  3. D

  4. Nitrogen is converted into usable forms in the soil by   bacteria  .

  5. Carbon is returned to the atmosphere by [  photosynthesis  respiration ] and removed from the atmosphere by [  photosynthesis  respiration ].

  6. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria live in root nodules of   legumes  .

Quick Quiz #5

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

  1. The tropical rain forest has [  greater  lesser ] biological diversity than the tundra.

  2. The biome characterized by large numbers of evergreen conifers is the   taiga  .

  3. The primary plant forms of the [  taiga  tundra  desert ] are mosses, lichen, and wildflowers.

  4. The ocean floor is known as the   benthic   zone.

  5. Animals with adaptations for a dry environment would live in the [  savanna  desert ].

  6. The deepest zone of the ocean is the [  abyssal zone  pelagic zone ].

  7. Permanently frozen soil is a characteristic of   tundra  .

  8. The biome with very fertile soil and many herbivores is the   grassland  .

  9. Deer, bears, and raccoon are found in the [  tundra  rain forest  deciduous forest ], whereas caribou and moose are found in the [  tundra  rain forest  deciduous forest ].

10. Deciduous trees [  do  do not ] lose their leaves during cold seasons.

11. Phytoplankton would thrive well in the [  limnetic zone  profundal zone ].

12. Succulent plants are well suited to [  savanna  desert ].

13. Areas of water where light does not penetrate are known as   aphotic   zones.

14. The most northern biome is the [  taiga  tundra ].

15. The tundra [  does  does not ] grow many trees.

16. Coral reefs can typically be found in the [  intertidal zone  neritic zone ].