SAT For Dummies

Part V

Where the Rubber Meets the Road: Practice Tests

 

In this part . . .

Time for a reality check. The first time you sit in a silent room facing an SAT test shouldn’t be the morning of your test day. By that time, you should have at least one practice exam under your belt, fortifying you like a hearty breakfast for the rigors of SAT reasoning. Yes, working through a practice exam does kill a perfectly fine morning (or evening or middle of the night — whenever you prefer to practice), but the investment of time will pay off.

In this part, I thoughtfully (and humbly) provide not just one but five (count ’em if you don’t believe me) full-length SATs. In the interests of full disclosure (I’m the mother of a lawyer), I must tell you that I, not the College Board, wrote them. Your test may differ slightly in number and order of questions from the real SAT. Also, because I’m kind-hearted, I haven’t included the extra, nonscored section that you’ll find on the real test. (The SAT makers always throw in a section that doesn’t count toward your official score. This section helps them devise future tortures — er, I mean tests.)

I promise you that the tests in this part do prepare you nicely for whatever the SAT makers throw at you. Try one, score it, review whatever was tough for you (the answers and explanations follow each exam), and then, if you have time, try out another one. You may be bored now, but you’ll be smart and prepared come SAT day.

Chapter 20

Practice Exam 1

The first paragraph is usually where you find my lame jokes, but in this chapter, you need to be as serious as you can be. Clear out your room or find a sheltered spot in the public library. Place a watch in front of you, or sit where you can see a wall clock. Tear out the answer sheet that follows this page and gather two lined sheets of loose-leaf paper and a No. 2 pencil. Allot yourself the official amount of time you have to take each section (I tell you how much time you get at the beginning of each section), and get to work.

If you finish a section early, go back and recheck it. But don’t even think about looking at other sections. If you do so on the actual exam, the proctor will invalidate your whole test, and you’ll get a big fat zero for all your hard work! If you run out of time, put your pencil down and move on to the next section. Take a ten-minute break between Sections 3 and 4 and another ten minutes off between Sections 6 and 7.

No matter how tempted you are, resist the urge to turn to Chapter 21, where the answers and explanations for this practice test reside. Save them for later! And good luck.

Note: The real SAT will have ten sections, instead of the nine you see here because the College Board throws in an “equating section” that doesn’t count toward your score but allows the testers to evaluate new questions. The SAT doesn’t tell you which section is useless (to you). Because I’m here to help you score high on the SAT, I don’t include an equating section in any of the practice tests in this book. Nice of me, huh?

Answer Sheet

For Section 1, use two loose-leaf or lined notebook pages to write your essay. (On the real exam, the answer booklet contains two lined sheets.) For Sections 2 through 8, use the ovals and grid-ins provided with this practice exam to record your answers. Begin with Number 1 for each new section. If any sections have fewer than 35 questions, leave the extra spaces blank.

Section 2: Critical Reading

Section 3: Mathematics

Section 4: Critical Reading

Section 5: Mathematics

Section 6: Multiple-Choice Writing

Section 7: Critical Reading

Section 8: Mathematics

Section 9: Multiple-Choice Writing

Section 1

The Essay

Time: 25 minutes

Directions: In response to the following prompt, write an essay on a separate sheet of paper (the answer sheet). You may use extra space in the question booklet to take notes and to organize your thoughts, but only the answer sheet will be graded.

“Once a person’s curiosity, on any subject, is aroused it is surprising just how far it may lead him in pursuit of its object, how readily it overcomes every obstacle.” — Georges Ifrah

“Curiosity is one of the most permanent and certain characteristics of a vigorous intellect.” — Samuel Johnson

Does curiosity help or harm? Discuss the role of curiosity in human life, drawing upon history, ­literature, current events, or your own experience and observations.

Section 2

Critical Reading

Time: 25 minutes for 25 questions

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Directions for Questions 1–8: Select the answer that best fits the meaning of the sentence.

Example: After he had broken the dining room window, Hal’s mother _____ him.

(A) selected

(B) serenaded

(C) fooled

(D) scolded

(E) rewarded

The answer is (D).

1. Helen’s response to the flood is not simply intellectual, but _____.

(A) practical

(B) theoretical

(C) philosophical

(D) ethical

(E) strident

2. _____ research into the origins of Delkong culture indicates that a hunter-gatherer society was established about 2,000 years earlier than was previously thought.

(A) Prior

(B) Contemporary

(C) Theoretical

(D) Antiquated

(E) Discredited

3. It has been suggested that the _____ references to architectural history _____ the paper’s focus on engineering concepts.

(A) documented . . . affect

(B) sophisticated . . . enhance

(C) myriad . . . weaken

(D) impeccable . . . distort

(E) obscure . . . sharpen

4. Its presence in all languages has led many to the conclusion that grammar is _____.

(A) innate

(B) inevitable

(C) multifaceted

(D) extraneous

(E) coincidental

5. By subsidizing small business, the government hopes to _____ the once prosperous area.

(A) stagnate

(B) annex

(C) enervate

(D) aggrandize

(E) reinvigorate

6. Although Deeplock has promised to shorten the agenda, the council is _____ about discussing the topic of global warming and will insist that it be included.

(A) ambivalent

(B) adamant

(C) perplexed

(D) apathetic

(E) neutral

7. Notwithstanding the _____ effort on the part of the entire team, the championship went to the other division for the first time in ten years.

(A) herculean

(B) spontaneous

(C) gratuitous

(D) pluralistic

(E) intermittent

8. The revolt against Puritanism in the 18th century was perhaps more intense than the author’s _____ conveys.

(A) dissertation

(B) historiography

(C) memoir

(D) polemic

(E) diatribe

Directions for Questions 9–12: Choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passage or in the introductory material.

Questions 9 and 10 are based on the following passage, excerpted from The Transformational Leader by Noel M. Tichy and Mary Anne Devanna (Wiley).

9. Which statement is implied in the passage?

(A) There are many different ways to come to a decision in a large organization.

(B) The same person should not formulate both mission and strategy for an ­organization.

(C) Powerful people are the only ones who should make a decision.

(D) Textbooks that focus on technical matters are not useful.

(E) All levels of an organization should be involved in decision making.

10. The author believes that power comes from

(A) technical expertise

(B) political connections

(C) the ability to make decisions about goals and methods

(D) job titles

(E) recommendations made by consulting groups

Questions 11 and 12 are based on the following passage, excerpted from Physical Science in the Middle Ages by Edward Grant (Wiley).

11. According to the passage, the Emperor Justinian

(A) resigned his post as head of the Eastern half of the Roman Empire

(B) designed new forms of social and governmental activity

(C) attempted to maintain the power and organization of the Roman Empire at its height

(D) was in favor of merging the Western and Eastern halves of the Roman Empire

(E) fought against the Western half of the Roman Empire

12. What is the meaning of “trappings” in Line 6?

(A) device to catch enemies

(B) ornamental factors

(C) bureaucracy

(D) spirit

(E) government

Directions for Questions 13–25: Choose the best answer from among those given, based on what the author states or implies in the passage.

Questions 13 to 24 refer to the following passage, an excerpt from The Knight by Alan Baker (Wiley), which discusses feudalism.

13. In Paragraph 1, the author implies that

(A) feudalism originated in Japan

(B) feudalism spread from England to Spain

(C) it is generally agreed that Egypt and India had feudal societies

(D) it is impossible to define feudalism

(E) no single definition of feudalism will be accepted by all historians

14. According to Lines 1–19 (Paragraph 1), the most probable reason a form of feudalism existed in England and Spain is that

(A) England and Spain were influenced by countries in which feudalism was well established

(B) the merits of feudalism were overwhelming

(C) the system was imposed by colonial powers

(D) the system was spread by traders

(E) knights traveling from one country to another needed feudalism to survive

15. The author mentions Russia (Lines 30–32)

(A) as an additional example of a society with a full-fledged feudal system

(B) to show that the vassal/lord relationship existed in countries without fully feudal societies

(C) to contrast Russia’s system of vassalage with Japan’s

(D) because Russia had no vassals

(E) to prove that feudalism existed in the modern era

16. Based on this excerpt, what is the best definition of vassal?

(A) a lord who commanded knights

(B) a soldier who fought for his country

(C) a noble who ruled over a substantial area

(D) someone who served a lord in return for land and other rights

(E) a tenant farmer who worked but did not own the land

17. Which idea is implied but not stated in the passage?

(A) Land was the basis of wealth in feudal society.

(B) Knights were at war more often than not.

(C) Japanese daimyos were superior to European vassals.

(D) Feudalism provided benefits only to the wealthy.

(E) Marriage was a purely private decision.

18. All of the following are obligations owed to feudal lords by their vassals except

(A) approval of marriage partners

(B) erection of a castle

(C) fees in return for land grants

(D) financial support for important events

(E) military service

19. According to the passage, feudal lords

(A) were obliged to accept their vassals’ advice

(B) controlled the peasants

(C) consulted with other lords before making important decisions

(D) could seek advice from their vassals

(E) found marriage partners for the children of their vassals

20. The author of the passage would most likely agree with which statement?

(A) Feudalism was directly responsible for the instability of the medieval period.

(B) Feudalism was weak in Germany because princes had too much power.

(C) Feudalism worked best when religion played no role.

(D) The feudal system did not work well in the absence of a strong king.

(E) Feudalism protected the rights of women.

21. In Line 60, the pyramid analogy implies that

(A) German feudalism was unstable

(B) castles were constructed in the same way as pyramids

(C) the king’s power equaled that of the ancient Egyptian pharaohs

(D) all vassals were equal

(E) vassals had varying degrees of power

22. The word “this” in Line 91 refers to

(A) feudalism

(B) the violence and unpredictability of medieval life

(C) the impartiality of the church in matters of politics

(D) the link between the church and a particular claimant of the throne

(E) all the disadvantages of feudalism described in the preceding paragraph

23. What is the closest meaning of “nominal” (Line 100)?

(A) alleged to be true

(B) just enough to deserve the name

(C) justified under the circumstances

(D) supposed to be true

(E) purportedly

24. The author’s tone may best be described as

(A) dispassionate

(B) strident

(C) didactic

(D) satirical

(E) critical

25. The best title for this passage is

(A) Feudalism in Europe and Japan

(B) A Definition of Feudalism

(C) The Rights of Vassals

(D) The Disadvantages of Feudalism

(E) The Pyramid of Power

Section 3

Mathematics

Time: 25 minutes for 20 questions

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Notes:

 You may use a calculator.

 All numbers used in this exam are real numbers.

 All figures lie in a plane.

 All figures may be assumed to be to scale unless the problem specifically indicates otherwise.

There are 360 degrees of arc in a circle.

There are 180 degrees in a straight line.

There are 180 degrees in the sum of the interior angles of a triangle.

1. In a 28-student class, the ratio of boys to girls is 3:4. How many girls are there in the class?

(A) 4

(B) 9

(C) 12

(D) 16

(E) 25

2. If f(x) = 2x4, then f(–2) =

(A) –256

(B) –32

(C) 0

(D) 32

(E) 256

3. In a drawer are seven pairs of white socks, nine pairs of black socks, and six pairs of brown socks. Getting dressed in a hurry, Josh pulls out a pair at a time and tosses them on the floor if they are not the color he wants. Looking for a brown pair, Josh pulls out and discards a white pair, a black pair, a black pair, and a white pair. What is the probability that on his next reach into the drawer he will pull out a brown pair of socks?

(A) 1⁄3

(B) 3⁄11

(C) 6⁄17

(D) 7⁄18

(E) 9⁄22

4. What are the coordinates of point A in the diagram above?

(A) (0, 10)

(B) (5, 0)

(C)

(D) (10, 0)

(E)

5. Evaluate .

(A) –81

(B) 1⁄81

(C) 1⁄6

(D) 3

(E) 6

6. The ratio of Dora’s money to Lisa’s money is 7:5. If Dora has $24 more than Lisa, how much does Dora have?

(A) $10

(B) $14

(C) $60

(D) $84

(E) $144

7. In a triangle, the second side is 3 cm longer than the first side. The length of the third side is 5 cm less than twice the length of the first side. If the perimeter is 34 cm, find the length, in centimeters, of the longest side.

(A) 3

(B) 8

(C) 9

(D) 12

(E) 13

8. On a number line, point A is at –4 and point B is at 8. What point is 1⁄4 of the way from A to B?

(A) –2

(B) –1

(C) 0

(D) 1

(E) 2

9. If 2y – c = 3c, then y =

(A) c⁄2

(B) c

(C) 3c⁄2

(D) 2c

(E) 3c

10. If , then x equals

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

(E) 5

11. Let &x be defined as x + 3 if x is prime, and as 2x if x is composite. Which of the following would produce a result of 18?

I. &15

II. &9

III. &36

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) III only

(D) both I and II

(E) both II and III

12. The volume of a gas, V, in cubic centimeters (cc), is directly proportional to its temperature, T, in Kelvins (K). If a gas has a volume of 31.5 cc at 210 K, then its volume at 300 K would be

(A) 121.5 cc

(B) 49 cc

(C) 45 cc

(D) 22.05 cc

(E) 0.805 cc

13. If the data in the scatterplot above were approximated by a linear function, the line would come closest to which pair of points?

(A) A and B

(B) A and C

(C) A and D

(D) B and C

(E) C and D

14. In this diagram (not drawn to scale), x = 70°, y = 30°. The sum a + b + z equals

(A) 40°

(B) 90°

(C) 100°

(D) 120°

(E) 180°

15. In a sequence of evenly spaced numbers, the first term is 7, and the 20th term is 159. The fourth term of the sequence would be

(A) 32

(B) 31

(C) 30

(D) 29

(E) 28

16. This graph represents a function, f(x). Which of the following graphs could represent f(x + 4)?

17. In this diagram, the measure of side j is

(A) 7

(B)

(C)

(D) 14

(E)

18. In a class of 100 students, 65 take Spanish, 32 take art, and 14 take both Spanish and art. How many students do not take either Spanish or art?

(A) 3

(B) 11

(C) 17

(D) 18

(E) 35

19. Max has 3 hours to study for his tests the next day. He decides to spend k percent of this time studying for math. Which of the following represents the number of minutes he will spend studying for math?

(A) k⁄300

(B) 3k⁄100

(C) 100k⁄180

(D) 180k⁄100

(E) 18,000⁄k

20. Given that ABCD and BDEF are rectangles, find the shaded area in this diagram.

(A) 24

(B)

(C) 20

(D)

(E) 16

Section 4

Critical Reading

Time: 25 minutes for 24 questions

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Directions for Questions 1–9: Select the answer that best fits the meaning of the sentence.

Example: Winning the prize, Harold was _____ in praising his competitors.

(A) negligent

(B) obstinate

(C) ridiculous

(D) gracious

(E) foolish

The answer is (D).

1. Elwood was admired by the citizens of the town who knew him, yet _____ by strangers who had merely read of his actions in the paper.

(A) ignored

(B) revered

(C) esteemed

(D) condemned

(E) adored

2. The ambassadors assumed an early end to hostilities, despite _____ from rebel groups.

(A) resistance

(B) surrender

(C) withdrawal

(D) compromise

(E) interrogation

3. The mayor’s statement that funds for police and firefighters should be _____ was belied by her insistence that taxes be _____.

(A) enhanced . . . raised

(B) decreased . . . lowered

(C) increased . . . slashed

(D) cut . . . frozen

(E) expanded . . . suspended

4. The Supreme Court’s decision in Brown vs. Board of Education _____ legalized segregation, but more than a half century later, separate schools for black and white children _____.

(A) sanctioned . . . flourish

(B) outlawed . . . persist

(C) permitted . . . lag

(D) terminated . . . intimidate

(E) promoted . . . exist

5. Jane Austen wrote many of her novels in a small parlor in the family home in Chawton, relying on a squeaky door to _____ her when visitors approached so that she could hide her manuscript and thus _____ her work.

(A) entertain . . . publicize

(B) warn . . . reveal

(C) surprise . . . disguise

(D) rationalize . . . preserve

(E) alert . . . conceal

6. Although the opposing factions were not able to achieve _____, they left the jury room in _____.

(A) unity . . . discord

(B) agreement . . . anger

(C) leniency . . . silence

(D) consensus . . . amity

(E) deliberations . . . disarray

7. After studying cancer for many decades, scientists have come to the conclusion that cancer is not one disease but rather a(n) _____ of conditions with _____ symptoms, ranging from solid tumors to an unchecked proliferation of white blood cells.

(A) predominance . . . equal

(B) variety . . . opposing

(C) array . . . identical

(D) cluster . . . diverse

(E) catalog . . . congruent

8. When she won the lottery, her friends expected Eleanor to be _____, but she was surprisingly _____.

(A) jovial . . . affable

(B) elated . . . mirthful

(C) depressed . . . morose

(D) intimidated . . . confident

(E) acrimonious . . . cheerful

9. The display of religious artifacts in that store is quite _____, including pieces from many periods and nations.

(A) ubiquitous

(B) eclectic

(C) international

(D) parochial

(E) ecclesiastical

Directions for Questions 10–24: Base your answers on information in either or both of the following passages. You may also answer questions on what is implied in the passages or about the relationship between the two passages.

Passages I and II are drawn from Into the House of Ancestors: Inside the New Africa by Karl Maier (Wiley).

10. What is the primary purpose of the first paragraph (Lines 1–17) of Passage I?

(A) to explain the importance of artistic expression

(B) to orient the reader to conditions in Africa

(C) to introduce Joram Mariga and his family and friends

(D) to show the geographical setting for the events in the passage

(E) to explain the basis of Mariga’s discovery

11. Mariga’s journeys into the mountains (Lines 23–29)

(A) were made more difficult by road crews

(B) became impossible because of poor road conditions

(C) enabled him to understand the difficulties farmers faced getting their crops to market

(D) allowed him to carve

(E) were intended to explore local artwork

12. All of the following words may describe the soapstone that Mariga discovered except

(A) slick

(B) smooth

(C) green

(D) opaque

(E) soft

13. The passage implies but does not state that Joram Mariga

(A) could not fully appreciate the potential marketing value of soapstone carvings

(B) had no artistic training

(C) gave up his government job in order to concentrate on art

(D) taught many Africans to carve soapstone

(E) was not interested in his job with the Ministry of Agriculture

14. The “largely illiterate farmers and unemployed workers” became “ambassadors for their country and their continent” (Lines 62–64) because

(A) the Ministry of Agriculture deals with many foreign countries

(B) the government employed them

(C) their carvings show the creativity and artistry of Africans to all who bought them

(D) they traveled to other countries to sell their artwork

(E) they easily moved their product to market once the roads were improved

15. Education in Africa “stands at a crossroads” (Line 66) because

(A) Africans must choose between technology and traditional education

(B) the plans for educational advancement have been undermined by political and economic problems

(C) Africans must develop strong governments before educational improvements can be made

(D) without changes, education may deteriorate so completely that reform becomes impossible

(E) governments do not want to educate children

16. The comparison between an uneducated citizenry in a democracy to “a computer without software” (Lines 78–79)

(A) shows that education is necessary for sound political choices

(B) highlights the importance of technology

(C) illustrates that education is a political act

(D) reveals the way in which education is influenced by politics

(E) emphasizes that citizens must vote in order for democracy to work

17. In Passage II, the author cites all of the following factors as important to African development except

(A) technology

(B) foreign investment

(C) education

(D) respect for traditional ways

(E) women’s rights

18. In comparison to the economies of Southeast Asia (Line 82), Africa

(A) has more foreign aid

(B) invests less in technology

(C) invests more money in university ­education

(D) invests more money in primary ­education

(E) invests less money in primary ­education

19. John Nkomas (Lines 83–90) is quoted because

(A) he challenges the importance of ­education

(B) “homegrown” technology cannot exist without good education

(C) he admires the economies of Asia

(D) he favors economic growth

(E) physics is a subject taught in schools

20. In the context of Passage II, which best describes the meaning of “tiger” (Line 82)?

(A) endangered

(B) predatory

(C) powerful

(D) dangerous

(E) fierce

21. Which statement would the author be most likely to add to Passage II?

(A) Foreign nations should establish schools in Africa.

(B) Communities and private individuals must support education.

(C) Educational reform is dependent upon good government policy.

(D) Africa should hire teachers from Southeast Asia.

(E) Taxes to support education must be increased.

22. Between Passage I and Passage II, the author’s attitude toward Africa changes

(A) from optimism about African development to apathy

(B) from faith in the power of individuals to calls for government and community action

(C) from admiration for traditional crafts to skepticism about their market potential

(D) from respect for government employees to doubts about their dedication

(E) by becoming more feminist

23. Both passages are primarily concerned with

(A) the hardships of African life

(B) the future of Africa

(C) the role of government in Africa

(D) the link between politics and social welfare

(E) the development of the African economy

24. Which statement best compares the two passages?

(A) Passage II is more general than Passage I.

(B) Passage I is less descriptive than Passage II.

(C) Passage I takes a less personal viewpoint than Passage II.

(D) Passage II illustrates the points made in Passage I.

(E) Both passages use narrative to make a point.

Section 5

Mathematics

Time: 25 minutes for 18 questions

Directions: This section contains two different types of questions. For Questions 1–8, choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. For Questions 9–18, follow the separate directions provided before those questions.

Notes:

 You may use a calculator.

 All numbers used in this exam are real numbers.

 All figures lie in a plane.

 All figures may be assumed to be to scale unless the problem specifically indicates otherwise.

There are 360 degrees of arc in a circle.

There are 180 degrees in a straight line.

There are 180 degrees in the sum of the interior angles of a triangle.

1. If the distance from Springfield to Watertown is 13 miles, and the distance from Watertown to Pleasantville is 24 miles, then the distance from Pleasantville to Springfield in miles could not be:

(A) 10

(B) 12

(C) 13

(D) 24

(E) 36

2. In a certain game, there are only two ways to score points; one way is worth 3 points, and the other is worth 5 points. If Tamsin’s total score is 61, which of the following could be the number of 3-point scores that Tamsin had?

(A) 10

(B) 11

(C) 12

(D) 13

(E) 14

3. A number, n, is defined as a “tweener” if both n – 1 and n + 1 are prime. Which of the following numbers is a tweener?

(A) 2

(B) 8

(C) 30

(D) 36

(E) 48

4. If the square of x is 12 less than the product of x and 5, which of the following expressions could be used to solve for x?

(A) x2 = 5x – 12

(B) x2 = 12 – 5x

(C) 2x = 12 – 5x

(D) 2x = 5x – 12

(E) x2 = (x + 5) – 12

5. A batch of mixed nuts was created by adding 5 pounds of peanuts, costing $5.50 per pound, to 2 pounds of cashews, costing $12.50 per pound. What would be the cost, per pound, of the resulting mixture?

(A) $7.35

(B) $7.50

(C) $9.00

(D) $10.50

(E) $12.00

6. If this graph represents f(x), then the number of solutions to the equation f(x) = 1 is

(A) zero

(B) one

(C) two

(D) three

(E) It cannot be determined from the information given.

7. The solution set to the equation  is

(A) {2}

(B) {22⁄3}

(C) {–2}

(D) {–2, 22⁄3}

(E) {–2, 2}

8. A square is changed into a rectangle by adding 3 meters to one side and subtracting 2 meters from the other side. The new rectangle has an area of 50 square meters. Find the original length of a side of the square.

(A) 5 meters

(B) 6 meters

(C) 7 meters

(D) 8 meters

(E) 9 meters

Directions for student-produced response Questions 9–18: Solve the problem and then write your answer in the boxes on the answer sheet. Then mark the ovals corresponding to your answer, as shown in the following example. Note the fraction line and the decimal points.

Although you do not have to write the solutions in the boxes, you do have to blacken the corresponding ovals. You should fill in the boxes to avoid confusion. Only the blackened ovals will be scored. The numbers in the boxes will not be read.

There are no negative answers.

Mixed numbers, such as 31⁄2, must be gridded in as decimals (3.5) or as fractions (7⁄2). Do not grid in 31⁄2; it will be read as 31⁄2.

Grid in a decimal as far as possible. Do not round your answer and leave some boxes empty.

A question may have more than one answer. Grid in only one answer.

9. Lauren took four exams. Her scores on the first three are 89, 85, and 90. If her average (arithmetic mean) on all four exams is 90, what did she get on the fourth exam?

10. In a school survey, 40% of all students chose history as their favorite subject; 25% chose English; and 14 chose some other subject as their favorite. How many students were surveyed?

11. Find the value of x that satisfies .

12. For all numbers p and q, where p ≠ 4, let p\\q be defined as . For what value of p does p\\7 = 21?

13. The ratio of a rectangle’s width to its length is 2:5. If its perimeter is 84 feet, find its width, in feet.

14. Renting a private party room in a restaurant can be modeled as a linear function. If the cost of a party of 8 is $270, and the cost of a party of 10 is $320, find the cost, in dollars, of a party of 18.

15. Darren receives $9 an hour for his afterschool job, but gets paid 11⁄2 times this salary for each hour he works on a weekend. If he worked 18 hours one week and received $189, how many of these hours did he work on weekends?

16. If p > 0, and the distance between the points (4, –1) and (–2, p) is 10, find p.

17. If a – b = 8 and ab = 10, then a2 + b2 =

18. The pyramid above has a square base of length 10 cm and a height of 12 cm. Determine the total surface area of all five faces, in square centimeters.

Section 6

Multiple-Choice Writing

Time: 25 minutes for 35 questions

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Directions for Questions 1–18: Each sentence is followed by five choices. Choose the answer that best improves the sentence. If the underlined portion of the sentence is best left alone, choose (A).

Example: Bert and him went to the store to buy boots in preparation for the approaching storm.

(A) Bert and him went

(B) Bert and he went

(C) Bert and he had gone

(D) Bert and him had gone

(E) Bert and himself went

The correct answer is (B).

1. Jenny finds that she has time only for playing sports and studying, not to audition for the school musical as well.

(A) not to audition for the school musical as well

(B) not for auditioning for the school musical as well

(C) and to audition for the school musical there is not enough time

(D) and no time to audition for the school musical also

(E) but also not to audition for the school musical

2. Yesterday the weather forecaster noted a sharp fall in barometric pressure, this is an indication that a storm is coming.

(A) pressure, this is an indication

(B) pressure; and this is an indication

(C) pressure, which is an indication

(D) pressure, which had indicated

(E) pressure, and indicates

3. The lion had a thorn in it’s paw, but the zookeeper was able to take care of the problem.

(A) in it’s paw, but

(B) in its paw, but

(C) in it’s paw but

(D) in its paw but

(E) in its’ paw, but

4. The Native American guides objected to him trespassing on sacred ground.

(A) objected to him trespassing

(B) has objected to him trespassing

(C) objected to him having trespassed

(D) objected that he trespassed

(E) objected to his trespassing

5. Just between you and I, the school board would like to place less emphasis on standardized tests.

(A) Just between you and I, the school board would like

(B) Just between you and I, the school board likes

(C) Just between you and me, the school board would like

(D) Between just you and I, the school board would like

(E) Between just you and I, the school board likes

6. At present, Max’s family traveled to California eight years in a row.

(A) Max’s family traveled

(B) everyone in Max’s family traveled

(C) Max’s family has traveled

(D) Max’s family had traveled

(E) Max’s family will have traveled

7. Impatiently waiting at the curb, the taxi sped past the toddler who was holding his mama’s hand.

(A) Impatiently waiting at the curb, the taxi sped past the toddler who was holding his mama’s hand.

(B) The taxi sped past the toddler who was holding his mama’s hand impatiently waiting at the curb.

(C) Impatiently waiting at the curb, the toddler watched the taxi speed past, holding his mama’s hand.

(D) The toddler impatiently waiting at the curb held his mama’s hand and watched the taxi speed past.

(E) The toddler impatiently waiting at the curb held his mama’s hand, and watched the taxi speed past.

8. Duke’s rubber bone is one of those adorable dog toys that are sold in every petshop.

(A) toys that are sold in every petshop.

(B) toys which are sold in every petshop.

(C) toys that is sold in every petshop.

(D) toys, that is sold in every petshop.

(E) toys, that are sold in every petshop.

9. The reason protestors object to the biology curriculum is because they believe that students should not dissect a frog.

(A) protestors object to the biology curriculum is because

(B) protestors object to the biology curriculum is that

(C) protestors, they object to the biology curriculum is because

(D) the biology curriculum was objected to by protestors is because

(E) the biology curriculum had been protested is that

10. Tim can’t understand why Olivia doesn’t write as well as him.

(A) why Olivia doesn’t write as well as him

(B) how Olivia doesn’t write as well as him

(C) the reason why Olivia doesn’t write as well as him

(D) why Olivia doesn’t write as well as he

(E) why Olivia didn’t write as well as him

11. The executive chef prepared the delicious and nutritious casserole, however his assistant deserved all the credit for developing the recipe.

(A) casserole, however his assistant deserved

(B) casserole; however his assistant had deserved

(C) casserole, however, his assistant deserved

(D) casserole however his assistant was deserving of

(E) casserole; however, his assistant deserved

12. Deborah gave a piece of birthday cake to whomever she thought would eat it.

(A) to whomever she thought would eat it

(B) to whomever she thought would like to eat it

(C) to whoever she thought would eat it

(D) to whoever she thought would have eaten it

(E) to whomever she thought would have eaten it

13. The gas station stood where the supermarket was.

(A) stood where the supermarket was

(B) stood where the supermarket has been

(C) had stood where the supermarket had been

(D) stood, where the supermarket was

(E) stood where the supermarket had been

14. Neither the teacher nor the students was willing to forgo the class trip and substitute a virtual tour of the museum.

(A) was willing to forgo the class trip and substitute

(B) were willing to forgo the class trip and they would substitute

(C) was willing to forgo the class trip, but substituting

(D) were willing to forgo the class trip and substitute

(E) was willing to forgo the class trip, substituting

15. In the newspaper it says that the state colleges are considering a tuition increase to meet rising costs.

(A) In the newspaper it says that

(B) In the newspaper the article says that

(C) The newspaper reports that

(D) The newspaper, says that

(E) The newspaper it says that

16. The results of that scientific study are considered suspect because of possible bias on the part of the researchers, who were funded by a pharmaceutical company.

(A) who were funded by a pharmaceutical company

(B) and the study was funded by a pharmaceutical company

(C) because the study, which was funded by a pharmaceutical company

(D) of pharmaceutical company’s funding

(E) in that the pharmaceutical company funded it

17. The Czech Republic and Slovakia were once united as “Czechoslovakia,” and the groups had two different languages and traditions.

(A) and the groups had two different languages and traditions

(B) although the groups had two different languages and traditions

(C) and they had two different languages and traditions

(D) despite the fact that the groups were those who had two different languages and traditions

(E) two different languages and traditions were in the country

18. The faulty part may cause the stroller to collapse, and this is why the company has recalled the product.

(A) and this is why the company has recalled the product

(B) therefore the company has recalled the product

(C) so the company has recalled the product

(D) which is why the company has recalled the product

(E) and the company recalled the product for this reason

Directions for Questions 30–35: These questions are based on the following essay. Choose the best answer to each question.

30. In the context of this essay, which of the following is the best revision of Sentences 1 and 2?

(A) These days it is possible to watch trials on television. Several important trials have been televised for months on end, and a whole TV network shows nothing but this. (No change)

(B) These days it is possible to watch trials on television, and several important trials have been televised for months on end, while a whole TV network shows nothing else.

(C) These days it is possible to watch an actual, live trial on television, sometimes for months. In fact, an entire television network shows nothing but trials.

(D) The Justice Network broadcasts nothing but trials, some of which last for months. These trials are not fiction. Viewers see live court proceedings with real defendants.

(E) One television network shows trials, all day, every day. These trials are real, and some last for months.

31. What is the purpose of Paragraph 2?

(A) to show why broadcasting trials is acceptable

(B) to answer objections to trial broadcasting that may arise

(C) to argue against broadcasting trials

(D) to continue the example given in Paragraph 1

(E) to prepare the way for Paragraph 3

32. How may Sentences 6 and 7 best be combined?

(A) True, the jury cannot see the broadcast, they often must stay in hotels during important trials.

(B) True, the jury, that must often stay in hotels during important trials, cannot see the broadcast.

(C) True, the jury cannot see the broadcast, due to the fact that they often must stay in hotels during important trials.

(D) True, the jury cannot see the broadcast because of the fact that they often must stay in hotels during important trials.

(E) True, the jury, which must often stay in hotels overnight during important trials, cannot see the broadcast.

33. Which of the following is the best revision of Sentence 9?

(A) Also, attorneys and court employees may play to the camera, acting more dramatic than they should just because the world is watching and they know it. (No change)

(B) Also, attorneys and court employees may behave more dramatically than they should just because they know that the camera allows the world to watch.

(C) Also, attorneys and court employees may play to the camera, acting more dramatic than they should just because the world is watching and they know they are on television.

(D) Also, attorneys and court employees may play to the camera, acting more dramatic because the world is watching.

(E) Also, attorneys and court employees may play to the camera, acting more dramatic than they should just because the world is watching through the camera.

34. How should Sentence 10 be changed?

(A) It is important to have justice open to the public. (No change)

(B) Most important is the fact that justice should be open to public view.

(C) On the other hand, justice should be open to the public.

(D) Despite what you may say, it is important to have justice open to the public.

(E) It is important if justice is open to the public.

35. What is the purpose of the last paragraph?

(A) to come to a firm conclusion about whether trial broadcasting should be allowed

(B) to let the reader decide whether trial broadcasting should be allowed

(C) to emphasize the importance of the issue of judicial fairness

(D) to emphasize the importance of the decision about broadcasting

(E) to show why only the judge can decide whether broadcasting is justified

Section 7

Critical Reading

Time: 20 minutes for 19 questions

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Directions for Questions 1–6: Select the answer that best fits the meaning of the sentence.

Example: After he had broken the dining room window, Hal’s mother _____ him.

(A) selected

(B) serenaded

(C) fooled

(D) scolded

(E) rewarded

The answer is (D).

1. The study of identical twins reared separately has provided evidence that one’s genetic makeup is a powerful but not _____ force.

(A) omnipotent

(B) distinguishing

(C) intellectual

(D) coercive

(E) understood

2. To reduce _____, the company will no longer mail monthly paper statements to those with _____ to online statements.

(A) confusion . . . entry

(B) error . . . tendencies

(C) conflict . . . admission

(D) litter . . . admittance

(E) waste . . . access

3. The _____ author churned out at least one book a year.

(A) tabloid

(B) efficient

(C) outstanding

(D) prolific

(E) capable

4. With interest but without _____, the baby examined the new toy from every angle.

(A) dexterity

(B) prejudice

(C) apathy

(D) enthusiasm

(E) lethargy

5. The crew quarters on the submarine were so _____ that each sailor was _____ only a tiny locker.

(A) large . . . given

(B) capacious . . . assigned

(C) cramped . . . allotted

(D) voluminous . . . apportioned

(E) commodious . . . allocated

6. Glazing his pottery in _____ colors, the artist’s display resembled a rainbow.

(A) pale

(B) pastel

(C) myriad

(D) subdued

(E) sensible

Directions for Questions 7–10: Choose the best answer from the information supplied or implied by the passages.

Passage I is drawn from Mary Shelley’s famous novel, Frankenstein. In this excerpt, the narrator describes his scientific studies. Passage II comes from Basic Statistics: A Primer for the Biomedical Sciences by Olive Jean Dunn (Wiley) and discusses the role of statistics in medical research.

7. In Passage I, “food” (Line 9) can best be defined as

(A) thirst

(B) hunger

(C) recipe

(D) fuel

(E) nutrition

8. In Passage II, the author’s attitude toward biostatistics may be characterized as

(A) critical

(B) nostalgic

(C) fearful

(D) favorable

(E) adverse

9. The author of Passage II would agree with which of the following statements?

(A) Medicine in times past was more technological than statistical.

(B) Medical researchers should take a course in statistics.

(C) Mathematics has no place in medical training.

(D) The inclusion of statistics makes publication of medical research less likely.

(E) Old-fashioned doctors were better equipped to treat patients.

10. In contrast to the author of Passage II, the narrator in Passage I

(A) gives credit to the role of passion in science

(B) places more emphasis on literature

(C) is uninterested in mathematics

(D) publishes in many medical journals

(E) does not mention research in the context of education

Directions for Questions 11–19: Choose the best answer to each question, based on the information in the passage.

This passage is excerpted from Jane Austen’s novel, Northanger AbbeyNote: A “living” is an appointment to the post of minister in a particular area. A “living” carries a salary.

11. According to Paragraph 1 (Lines 1–40), a heroine ordinarily

(A) takes part in normal family life

(B) comes from a troubled family

(C) is wealthy

(D) has two surviving parents

(E) must not suffer

12. What does the author imply about men named Richard (Line 8)?

(A) They are usually not respectable.

(B) They are inclined to spiritual pursuits.

(C) They are seldom rich.

(D) They suffer from neglect.

(E) They can be trusted completely.

13. What, according to the passage, is the most surprising fact about Mrs. Morland?

(A) her love for her daughter

(B) her lack of particularly good looks

(C) her lack of sense

(D) her tendency to nervousness

(E) her good health

14. What phrase best defines “good constitution” (Line 14)?

(A) intelligence

(B) sensible nature

(C) sturdy body

(D) respect for the law

(E) robust health

15. All of the following describe the young Catherine Morland except

(A) mischievous

(B) thin

(C) athletic

(D) plain

(E) studious

16. Based on the passage, it is likely that “The Hare and Many Friends,” compared to the “Beggar’s Petition,” (Lines 46–49)

(A) contains more difficult language

(B) was required by Mrs. Morland

(C) is longer

(D) is easier to memorize

(E) holds less interest for Catherine

17. What best defines “bear” (Line 55) in the context of this passage?

(A) stand

(B) learn

(C) continue

(D) excel

(E) remove

18. Catherine’s reaction to the dismissal of the music-master (Lines 58–60) is probably

(A) the opposite of what her mother expected

(B) literally true

(C) exaggerated by the author for comic effect

(D) typical of a girl of her time

(E) unexpected by all

19. One can infer from the passage that which of the following subjects was part of the normal instruction of a young girl of Catherine’s time?

(A) sports

(B) languages

(C) geography

(D) dancing

(E) sculpture

Section 8

Mathematics

Time: 20 minutes for 16 questions

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Notes:

 You may use a calculator.

 All numbers used in this exam are real numbers.

 All figures lie in a plane.

 All figures may be assumed to be to scale unless the problem specifically indicates otherwise.

There are 360 degrees of arc in a circle.

There are 180 degrees in a straight line.

There are 180 degrees in the sum of the interior angles of a triangle.

1. If an eight-slice pizza has a diameter of 12 inches, what is the area of one slice, in square inches?

(A) 2.25π

(B) 4.5π

(C) 9π

(D) 18π

(E) 36π

2. Find x if 2(x + 4) = 6

(A) –1

(B) 0

(C) 1

(D) 2

(E) 3

3. A certain radioactive element has a half-life of 20 years. Thus, a sample of 100 grams deposited in 1980 would have decayed to 50 grams by 2000 and to 25 grams by 2020. How much of this sample would remain in 2100?

(A) 0 grams

(B) 19⁄16 grams

(C) 21⁄2 grams

(D) 31⁄8 grams

(E) 5 grams

4. Set S contains the numbers 20 to 40, inclusive. If a number is chosen at random from S, what is the probability that this number is even?

(A) 10⁄20

(B) 11⁄20

(C) 10⁄21

(D) 11⁄21

(E) 12⁄21

5. The number n satisfies the following properties:

I. It has three digits.

II. Its units digit is the sum of its tens digit and its hundreds digit.

III. It is a perfect square.

Which number could be n?

(A) 156

(B) 400

(C) 484

(D) 516

(E) 729

6. In this figure, the slope of line PQ is –1⁄3, and M is the midpoint of the line PQ. What are the coordinates of point P?

(A) (8, –1)

(B) (9, –1)

(C) (10, –2)

(D) (11, –2)

(E) (12, –2)

7. If ab = n, b + c = x, and n ≠ 0, which of the following must equal n?

(A) ax + c

(B) ax – c

(C) ax – ac

(D) ax – cx

(E) ac – ax

8. The number g is divisible by 3, but not by 9. Which of the following is a possible remainder when 7g is divided by 9?

(A) 0

(B) 2

(C) 4

(D) 6

(E) 8

9. If a > 0, which of the following statements must be true?

(A) a2 > a

(B) a > 1⁄a

(C)

(D) 2a > a

(E) 1⁄a < 1

10. In this diagram (not drawn to scale), , and AG = GF. The length

of AB is

(A) 24

(B) 18

(C) 16

(D) 12

(E) 8

11. If 2a + 3b = 17 and 2a + b = 3, then a + b =

(A) 1

(B) 5

(C) 7

(D) 7.5

(E) 10

12. A bicycle has a front wheel radius of 18 inches. If the bicycle wheel travels 50 revolutions, approximately how many feet has the bicycle rolled?

(A) 2,827

(B) 471

(C) 353

(D) 236

(E) 235

13. If p and q are positive integers, then  is equivalent to

(A) 5

(B) 5pq + p

(C) 5pq

(D) 5pq – p

(E) 5q + 1

14. In a set of five positive whole numbers, the mode is 90 and the average (arithmetic mean) is 80. Which of the following statements is false?

(A) The number 90 must appear two, three, or four times in the set.

(B) The number 240 cannot appear in the set.

(C) The number 80 must appear exactly once in the set.

(D) The five numbers must have a sum of 400.

(E) The median cannot be greater than 90.

15. Given that ABCD is a rectangle, and triangle BCF is isosceles, find the length of the line segment BE in this diagram.

(A)

(B)

(C) 12

(D)

(E) 13

16. Melvin, Chris, Enoch, Dave, Carey, Mike, Dan, and Peter are choosing dorm rooms for college. Each room holds four people. They have the following requirements:

I. Mike and Melvin refuse to live together.

II. Enoch will live with Chris or Carey (or possibly both).

III. If Dave and Dan live together, Peter will live with them.

When rooms are chosen, Melvin, Carey, and Dan live together. Which of the following groups must live in the other room?

(A) Chris, Dave, and Mike

(B) Chris, Mike, and Peter

(C) Dave, Enoch, and Peter

(D) Dave, Mike, and Peter

(E) Enoch, Mike, and Peter

Section 9

Multiple-Choice Writing

Time: 10 minutes for 14 questions

Directions: Choose the one answer that best improves the sentence. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. If the underlined portion of the sentence is best left alone, choose (A).

Example: Bert and him went to the store to buy boots in preparation for the approaching storm.

(A) Bert and him went

(B) Bert and he went

(C) Bert and he had gone

(D) Bert and him had gone

(E) Bert and himself went

The correct answer is (B).

1. The movement of refugees into centralized locations facilitates the delivery of essential services, in order that the refugees should survive until the crisis is over.

(A) in order that the refugees should survive until the crisis is over

(B) because the refugees will survive until the crisis is over

(C) so that the refugees survive until the crisis is over

(D) and the goal is that the refugees survive until the crisis is over

(E) with the goal being survival of the refugees until the crisis is over

2. Mr. Berens reported that his parking permit was displayed on the front windshield, although the traffic officer claimed otherwise on the ticket.

(A) that his parking permit was displayed

(B) his parking permit it was displayed

(C) about his parking permit being displayed

(D) regarding his parking permit, which was displayed

(E) in reference to his parking permit, he displayed it

3. For centuries, historians have been debating the role of Cleopatra, and the claim that she was as powerful as any Roman ruler is controversial.

(A) and the claim that she was as powerful as any Roman ruler is controversial

(B) and they claim that she was as powerful as any Roman ruler, though some disagree

(C) including the claim that she was as powerful as any Roman ruler

(D) about whether she was as powerful as any Roman ruler, which is controversial

(E) claiming controversially that she was as powerful as any Roman ruler

4. Having seen his father’s law practice, Joseph was determined to become one himself someday.

(A) Having seen his father’s law practice, Joseph was determined to become one himself

(B) Having seen his father’s law practice, Joseph was determined to enter that field

(C) Having seen his father’s law practice, Joseph was determined about becoming one himself

(D) Having seen his father’s law practice, Joseph was determined to become a lawyer himself

(E) Joseph, having seen his father’s law practice, was determined to become one himself

5. The French artist Manet identifying with the realism of his predecessors, which in turn grew out of Romanticism.

(A) identifying with the realism of his predecessors, which

(B) identifying with the realism of his predecessors, that

(C) was identifying with the realism of his predecessors, which

(D) had identified with the realism of his predecessors

(E) identified with the realism of his predecessors, which

6. For the majority of banks receiving funds from the government in the current economic downturn, salary caps were requirements and they didn’t like them.

(A) salary caps were requirements and they didn’t like them

(B) salary caps were requirements they didn’t like

(C) they disliked required salary caps

(D) the required salary caps were what they didn’t like

(E) they had to accept salary caps, which they didn’t like

7. The ceramics teacher giving his students five possible glazes, there is at least one that suits each vase.

(A) giving his students five possible glazes, there is at least one that suits

(B) having given his students five possible glazes, there is at least a suitable one for

(C) gives his students five possible glazes; at least one glaze is suitable for

(D) gives his students five possible glazes, at least one of them being suited for

(E) gives his students five possible glazes, at least one suiting

8. Viruses, when entered in the body, activate the immune system.

(A) when entered in the body

(B) having entered the body

(C) when they had entered the body

(D) because of entering the body

(E) entered the body

9. Given the high rate of accidents, the superintendent objects to our organizing a rock-climbing club.

(A) to our organizing

(B) to us organizing

(C) that we would be organizing

(D) to the organizing by us of

(E) to organizing

10. After having been told by their leaders that the war would be short and then subsequently disappointed, the citizens rebelled toward the government.

(A) rebelled toward the government

(B) were rebels toward the government

(C) they rebelled in relation to the government

(D) rebelled against the government

(E) were rebellious and it was toward the government

11. In the tradition of her ancestors, who carved intricate designs on their houses, Ella will decorate for hours at a time.

(A) will decorate

(B) would be decorating

(C) will have decorated

(D) was decorating

(E) decorated

12. Sent to boarding school at an early age, the curriculum was hard for Sandra.

(A) the curriculum was hard for Sandra

(B) the curriculum, it was hard for Sandra

(C) the curriculum for Sandra was very hard

(D) Sandra was finding the curriculum hard

(E) Sandra found the curriculum hard

13. George Washington inspired his soldiers by his heroism and that he was always motivated by patriotism.

(A) by his heroism and that he was always motivated by patriotism

(B) because he was heroic and that he was always motivated by patriotism

(C) that he was heroic and that he was always motivated by patriotism

(D) by his heroism and patriotism

(E) in that he had heroism and because he was motivated by patriotism

14. The literary works of ancient Greece are equally as interesting as those of ancient Rome.

(A) are equally as interesting as those

(B) are equally interesting as those

(C) are interesting, equally to those

(D) is equally interesting as the works

(E) are equally as interesting as the works