SAT For Dummies

Part V

Where the Rubber Meets the Road: Practice Tests

Chapter 22

Practice Exam 2

If you survived Practice Exam 1 in Chapter 20, you may be at the movies right now, throwing popcorn at the latest Hollywood shoot-’em-up. Still here? Okay, I guess that means you want to try again. Follow the procedures described at the beginning of Chapter 20 (the first practice exam): Sit in a quiet room, turn off the phone, and place a timer (an ordinary watch or clock works fine) right in front of your face. Spend no more than the allotted time on each part (I tell you how much at the beginning of each section) and resist the temptation to (a) fold the answer sheet into a paper airplane and fly it out the window (b) peek at Chapter 23, which contains the answers and explanations, or (c) call a friend to set up your weekend party schedule.

Note: The real SAT you take will have ten sections, instead of the nine you see here, because the College Board throws in an “equating section” that doesn’t count toward your score but allows the testers to evaluate new questions. The SAT doesn’t tell you which section is useless (to you). Because I’m here to help you score high on the SAT, I don’t include an equating section in any of the practice tests in this book. Nice of me, huh?

Answer Sheet

For Section 1, use two sheets of loose-leaf or notebook paper to write your essay. (On the real exam, the answer booklet contains two lined sheets.) For Sections 2 through 9, use the ovals and grid-ins to record your answers. Begin with Number 1 for each new section. If any sections have fewer than 35 questions, leave the extra spaces blank.

Section 2: Critical Reading

Section 3: Mathematics

Section 4: Critical Reading

Section 5: Mathematics

Section 6: Multiple-Choice Writing

Section 7: Critical Reading

Section 8: Mathematics

Section 9: Multiple-Choice Writing

Section 1

The Essay

Time: 25 minutes

Directions: In response to the following prompt, write an essay on a separate sheet of paper (the answer sheet). You may use extra space in the question booklet to take notes and to organize your thoughts, but only the answer sheet will be graded.

“Both the man of science and the man of art live always at the edge of mystery, surrounded by it.”  J. Robert Oppenheimer, scientist who worked on the atomic bomb

“But the creative person is subject to a different, higher law than mere national law. Whoever has to create a work, whoever has to bring about a discovery or deed which will further the cause of all of humanity, no longer has his home in his native land but rather in his work.”  Stephan Zweig, Austrian writer

To what extent should a scientist, an explorer, or a creative artist consider the consequences of his or her work? Drawing upon your own observations and experience or your knowledge of history, current events, and literature, comment on the obligation of an artist, explorer, or scientist to the public good.

Section 2

Critical Reading

Time: 25 minutes for 25 questions

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Directions for Questions 1–9: Select the answer that best fits the meaning of the sentence.

Example: After he had broken the dining room window, Hal’s mother _____ him.

(A) selected

(B) serenaded

(C) fooled

(D) scolded

(E) rewarded

The answer is (D).

1. The vice president was _____ by the behavior of the president, who did not even glance at his second-in-command during the inauguration ceremony.

(A) buoyed

(B) reassured

(C) intimidated

(D) inspired

(E) affected

2. The _____ of various city states into one nation triggered a period of extraordinary artistic and social growth.

(A) segregation

(B) integration

(C) polarization

(D) proclamation

(E) division

3. Angered by the loss of _____ evidence, the detective _____ his subordinates.

(A) crucial . . . upbraided

(B) insignificant . . . scolded

(C) outdated . . . demoted

(D) compelling . . . promoted

(E) adverse . . . affronted

4. The _____ corporation took pains to safeguard its _____ production methods.

(A) deregulated . . . multifaceted

(B) moribund . . . innovative

(C) affluent . . . lucrative

(D) secretive . . . well-publicized

(E) scrupulous . . . unethical

5. The pragmatic teacher’s goal was not to create a test that was particularly easy or hard for her pupils but rather one that _____ their studies.

(A) discouraged

(B) heightened

(C) repressed

(D) daunted

(E) motivated

6. The array of characters Shakespeare created makes his plays unique, and actors from every age strive to interpret the _____ roles he created.

(A) myriad

(B) convoluted

(C) versatile

(D) intuitive

(E) nebulous

7. Lucy continued her crusade to save the rain forest; furthermore, she strove to _____ the local animal population.

(A) annihilate

(B) decimate

(C) eradicate

(D) preserve

(E) proliferate

8. Dagmar was always _____ in her approach to homework, never completing today what she could postpone until the last possible minute.

(A) doleful

(B) doctrinaire

(C) diffident

(D) diligent

(E) dilatory

9. The _____ performance by that actor garnered few _____ from the audience.

(A) conventional . . . critiques

(B) effective . . . ovations

(C) convincing . . . plaudits

(D) affected . . . kudos

(E) explicit . . . explanations

Directions for Questions 10–21: Choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passage or in the introductory material.

This passage from Freud: Darkness in the Midst of Vision by Louis Breger (Wiley) discusses the work of Jean-Marie Charcot, a 19th-century pioneer of psychology who studied hysteria.

10. According to the passage, hysteria was once considered

(A) cause for lifelong hospitalization

(B) treatable only with powerful drugs

(C) fully understood

(D) incurable

(E) possession by an evil spirit

11. The author cites all of the following conditions as hysterical except

(A) lack of feeling

(B) inability to move

(C) uncontrolled bodily activity

(D) wild laughter

(E) memory loss

12. The meaning of “psychological” (Line 22) in this context may best be described as

(A) mentally ill

(B) requiring psychotherapy

(C) not arising from a physical condition

(D) the result of childhood events

(E) unconscious

13. According to the passage, Charcot

(A) linked hysteria to disturbing events in the patient’s life

(B) cured hysteria

(C) understood that hysteria was actually a group of illnesses, not one condition

(D) relied primarily on drug therapy for his patients

(E) could not prove the effectiveness of this treatment

14. The author probably mentions patients “of both sexes” (Line 38)

(A) to counter the idea that only females become hysterical

(B) to be fair to both male and female patients

(C) even though Charcot treated only women

(D) to show that Charcot treated everyone who asked

(E) because Charcot believed that hysteria was linked to female anatomy

15. “Railway spine” and “railway brain” (Line 42) are

(A) injuries resulting from train accidents

(B) terms once used for conditions resembling paralysis and head injuries

(C) imaginary ailments intended to deceive insurance companies

(D) physical injuries that take a psychological toll

(E) states displayed only under hypnosis

16. Charcot used hypnosis for all of the following except

(A) to distinguish between physical and psychological symptoms

(B) to enable a patient to move body parts that were previously immobile

(C) to restore memories to some patients

(D) to paralyze a patient

(E) to retrieve memories from brain-­damaged patients

17. “Dissociation” (Line 72) results from

(A) a blow to the head

(B) an unconscious process

(C) physical trauma

(D) a desire to deceive the doctor

(E) a deliberate forgetting of disturbing experiences

18. By inserting the word “genuine” into Line 75, the author implies that

(A) some of Charcot’s work did not advance science

(B) Charcot was sincere in his belief that hysteria was a real illness

(C) Charcot should not be overly praised

(D) Charcot was more important than Freud

(E) Charcot’s work can be duplicated by other scientists

19. Based on information in the passage, the author would probably agree with which of the following statements?

(A) Hysteria is best treated with hypnosis.

(B) Hysterics should not be treated medically.

(C) Hysteria is always linked to severe physical danger, such as a train wreck.

(D) To scientists today, hysteria is a meaningless term.

(E) Hysteria is a condition of female patients.

20. The author’s tone may best be described as

(A) nostalgic

(B) admiring

(C) biased

(D) informative

(E) critical

21. A good title for this passage is

(A) Charcot’s Work on Hysteria

(B) Charcot and Psychology

(C) Charcot’s Influence on Freud

(D) The Life of Jean-Marie Charcot

(E) Hysteria from Ancient through Modern Times

Directions for Questions 22–25: Choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passage or in the introductory material.

Questions 22 and 23 are based on the following passage, excerpted from The Hidden Universe by Roger J. Tayler (Wiley).

22. Which statement is supported by the passage?

(A) Nearby galaxies give off light that is older than light from distant galaxies.

(B) It is possible to see a current view of distant galaxies.

(C) Light from the Sun shows that the Sun is farther from the Earth than other stars.

(D) Light that reaches our eyes may have originated during different time periods.

(E) Light travels at different speeds depending upon which galaxy it originates from.

23. A good title for this passage would be

(A) Time Travel

(B) The Speed of Light

(C) Direct Study of the Past

(D) Characteristics of Light

(E) The Relationship between Light, Time, and Distance

Questions 24 and 25 are based on the following passage, excerpted from Rogue Asteroids and Doomsday Comets: The Search for the Million Megaton Menace That Threatens Life on Earth by Duncan Steel (Wiley).

24. According to the passage, Stonehenge

(A) was built to study the position of the Sun

(B) was intended to study another aspect of astronomy

(C) can be understood by archaeologists

(D) has not been studied well

(E) should be considered an unsolvable mystery

25. The words inside the dashes (Lines 7–8) are intended to

(A) give an example of a mistake often made about Stonehenge

(B) explain the author’s view of ­archaeology

(C) show people’s misconceptions about Stonehenge

(D) illustrate the “first part of the answer” that the author refers to

(E) specify the monument’s purpose

Section 3

Mathematics

Time: 25 minutes for 20 questions

Directions: Choose the best answer and darken the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Notes:

 You may use a calculator.

 All numbers used in this exam are real numbers.

 All figures lie in a plane.

 All figures may be assumed to be to scale unless the problem specifically indicates otherwise.

There are 360 degrees of arc in a circle.

There are 180 degrees in a straight line.

There are 180 degrees in the sum of the interior angles of a triangle.

1. If p = 5 and q = –4, then p(p – q) =

(A) –45

(B) –5

(C) 4

(D) 5

(E) 45

2. A coat was on sale for 50% off. Katie bought the coat, using a “$10 off the current price” coupon. If she paid $35 for the coat, what was its original price?

(A) $45

(B) $70

(C) $80

(D) $90

(E) $95

3. If the ratio of k to m is the same as the ratio of m to n, then which of the following must be true?

(A) kn = m2

(B) k + m = m + n

(C) kn = 2m

(D) km mn

(E) k – m – n

4. In this circle, point O is the center of the large circle, and points P and Q are the centers of the two smaller circles. If the distance PQ = 6, then the area of the large circle is

(A) 144π

(B) 72π

(C) 36π

(D) 12π

(E) 6π

5. Given that o is odd and that e is even, which of the following must be odd?

(A) oe

(B) (– e)(o + e)

(C) o(o + 1)

(D) (e + 1)(o – 1)

(E) e(o – e)

6. A train leaves the station at 10:45 p.m. and arrives at its destination at 2 a.m. the next day (without changing time zones). The train was stopped for 1⁄2 hour while it had engine trouble; the rest of the time, its average speed was 80 miles per hour. What total distance did the train travel?

(A) 120 miles

(B) 140 miles

(C) 220 miles

(D) 240 miles

(E) 260 miles

7. How many hours are in w weeks and d days?

(A) 7w + d

(B) 168w + 24d

(C) 24+ 168d

(D) 168w + d

(E) 7w + 24d

8. Given that B is the midpoint of line segment AC, which of the following is not true?

(A) The distance from A to C is 5 units.

(B) Point C has coordinates (7, 3).

(C) The distance from A to B is equal to the distance from B to C.

(D) The line segment connecting A to B has the same slope as the line segment connecting B to C.

(E) The slope of AC is positive.

9. Getting ready for a party, Nandan expected to set up 1⁄3 of the tables needed. Unfortunately, one of the people helping him did not show up. As a result, he now had to set up 1⁄2 of the tables. If he had to set up 4 more tables than he expected, what was the total number of tables set up for the party?

(A) 8

(B) 12

(C) 20

(D) 24

(E) 30

10. Which of the following equations would have a graph that passes through the point (–1, 4)?

(A) y = x – 5

(B) x + y = 5

(C) –x + 3 = y

(D) 2y – 3x = 5

(E) x2 + 5

11. Find the shaded area in this figure, where O is the center of the circle.

(A) 676π – 240

(B) 676π – 120

(C) 576π – 120

(D) 169π – 240

(E) 169π – 120

12. The three-digit number ABC has the following properties:

The middle digit is the sum of the first and last digits.

None of the digits repeat.

ABC is divisible by 5.

Which of the following could equal B?

(A) 6

(B) 5

(C) 4

(D) 3

(E) 2

Questions 13–15 deal with the following graph of f(x):

13. The number of solutions to f(x) = 0 is

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 3

(E) It cannot be determined from the graph alone.

14. Which of the following graphs represents f(x) – 2?

15. If a line were drawn connecting f(3) and f(–2), the slope of this line would be

(A) positive

(B) negative

(C) zero

(D) not a real number

(E) It cannot be determined from the graph alone.

16. If  and , then b could be

(A) –8

(B) –7

(C) –6

(D) 7

(E) 8

17. At 1 p.m., a 5-foot-tall boy casts a shadow that is 1 foot, 3 inches long. How tall is a tree that casts a shadow that is 7 feet long at the same time?

(A) 35 feet

(B) 28 feet

(C) 26 feet, 9 inches

(D) 10 feet, 9 inches

(E) 1 foot, 8 inches

18. If vw = x, wx = y, and xy = z, which of the following would be equal to yz?

(A) v2w2

(B) v3w5

(C) v4w4

(D) v4w6

(E) v5w8

19. In this triangle, AC bisects angle BAD. Find AC. (Figure is not drawn to scale.)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) 5

(E) 10

20. Rick and Jacob play a game in which each one rolls two six-sided dice (each die is numbered from one to six). Rick’s score is the sum of his two rolls. Jacob’s score is three times the lower number that he rolls; for example, if he rolls a 2 and a 5, his score is 6. On his first roll, Rick rolls a 4 and a 5. Find the probability that Jacob’s rolls will result in his having exactly the same score as Rick.

(A) 4⁄12

(B) 7⁄12

(C) 4⁄36

(D) 7⁄36

(E) 9⁄36

Section 4

Critical Reading

Time: 25 minutes for 24 questions

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Directions for Questions 1–10: Select the answer that best fits the meaning of the sentence.

Example: Fearful of _____ insulting his host, Mike read a book about the etiquette of the country he was visiting.

(A) purposely

(B) politely

(C) happily

(D) accidentally

(E) unconsciously

The answer is (D).

1. According to animal behaviorists, all breeds share _____ characteristics, though each dog exhibits _____ traits.

(A) exceptional . . . extreme

(B) ordinary . . . everyday

(C) genetic . . . significant

(D) common . . . unique

(E) adverse . . . shared

2. After hours of intense study and with the help of a powerful computer, the detective was able to decipher the meaning of the victim’s _____ note.

(A) cryptic

(B) unintelligible

(C) legible

(D) noxious

(E) restrained

3. The malfunction of even one connection _____ the entire system.

(A) surmounts

(B) nullifies

(C) consolidates

(D) jeopardizes

(E) champions

4. The assortment of dolls in the heir’s room was quite _____, ranging from heroic soldiers to delicate infants to exotic fashion figures.

(A) eclectic

(B) uniform

(C) universal

(D) mundane

(E) expensive

5. Curiosity about the _____ of life on Mars has resulted in a(n) _____ examination of the Red Planet.

(A) pestilence . . . cursory

(B) possibility . . . sustained

(C) existence . . . advantageous

(D) eradication . . . scientific

(E) withdrawal . . . intrusive

6. The establishment of a new broadcast network must be the work of _____ who are _____ as well as businesslike.

(A) visionaries . . . prosaic

(B) artists . . . culpable

(C) innovators . . . creative

(D) opportunists . . . conservative

(E) despots . . . collegial

7. Even more exciting than the final score can be the _____ plays of the tournament.

(A) generic

(B) extraneous

(C) intemperate

(D) ubiquitous

(E) critical

8. After so many years of experience, the interviewer couldn’t be _____ by any questions the potential employee asked.

(A) jaded

(B) bored

(C) nonplussed

(D) exhausted

(E) inspired

9. Their _____ relationship was characterized by _____ arguments.

(A) affable . . . jocular

(B) vivacious . . . sententious

(C) amicable . . . continual

(D) adversarial . . . infrequent

(E) malevolent . . . innocuous

10. No one who is _____ will travel abroad _____.

(A) conscientious . . . extensively

(B) prescient . . . neutrally

(C) organized . . . listlessly

(D) xenophobic . . . willingly

(E) fatuous . . . foolishly

Directions for Questions 11–24: Base your answers on information in either or both of these passages. You may also answer questions on what is implied in the passages or about the relationship between the two passages.

Passage I is an excerpt from The Big Splat, or How Our Moon Came to Be by Dana Mackenzie (Wiley). It discusses problems involved in creating an accurate measure of longitude. Passage II, which is taken from A Brief History of Flight by T.A. Heppenheimer (Wiley), describes ways in which early aircraft pilots navigated.

11. Both Passage I and Passage II primarily concern

(A) human ingenuity in the face of difficulty

(B) difficulties in navigation

(C) the importance of determining where you are located

(D) flight navigation

(E) ship navigation

12. The tone of both passages may best be described as

(A) inspirational

(B) critical

(C) entertaining

(D) informational

(E) sentimental

13. In contrast to Passage I, Passage II

(A) concerns a more modern era

(B) is more scientific

(C) gives more detail about navigation

(D) focuses more on the problems of navigation

(E) has a more historical view

14. Passage I implies that “charted waters” (Line 6)

(A) are more shallow than uncharted waters

(B) are not safe if the chart is followed incorrectly

(C) are close to land, not on the open sea

(D) may be charted inaccurately

(E) are more dangerous than open water

15. The words “Longitude was a whole different matter” (Line 21)

(A) emphasize the ease of determining latitude

(B) alert the reader to the fact that different methods were used to calculate longitude

(C) refer to the difficulty in calculating latitude

(D) explain why longitude was easier to calculate than latitude

(E) set up a contrast with latitude

16. Passage I relates time to distance because

(A) neither can be measured with complete accuracy

(B) distance is relative to the time of day

(C) the distance between two points may be measured by the difference in local time at each point

(D) time is relative when you are traveling

(E) it takes time to travel

17. Passage I implies that accurate timepieces

(A) were invented by the Royal Navy

(B) were destroyed by the movement of a ship

(C) were invented in order to facilitate navigation

(D) did not always work at sea before 1761

(E) did not exist until 1761

18. According to Passage I, naval chronometers (Line 42) are probably

(A) clocks especially adapted to tell time at sea

(B) devices that have been in existence since ancient times

(C) useful only at sea

(D) part of the Royal Navy’s battle equipment

(E) difficult to use

19. According to Passage II, early pilots

(A) could navigate without visual cues

(B) could not fly too high

(C) faced danger when flying low

(D) were required to fly at night

(E) gained experience on railroads

20. Pilots descended in bad weather (Lines 48–50) in order to

(A) avoid lightning

(B) see landmarks more clearly

(C) be ready for emergency landings

(D) alert a train conductor to their routes

(E) save fuel

21. In the context of Passage II, which of the following descriptions do not refer to “lighthouses” (Lines 56–57)?

(A) navigational aids for planes

(B) moving displays of lights

(C) markers at prominent airfields

(D) towers with reflectors and high-power lamps

(E) navigational aids for ships

22. Passage II implies that lighted airways

(A) were bad for the environment

(B) made air travel competitive with train travel

(C) crisscrossed hilly areas before they were built on flat surfaces

(D) made air travel less expensive

(E) helped train travel compete with air travel

23. The “landing lights” (Line 87) probably

(A) were better than lightways in clear weather

(B) could be turned on only when the plane was on land

(C) could be used only during landing

(D) illuminated the earth under the plane

(E) alerted the airport that the plane was about to land

24. The invention of radio (Lines 90–98)

(A) perfected long distance navigation

(B) had no effect on aviation

(C) made air travel easier

(D) depended upon a loop antenna

(E) was achieved by a German company

Section 5

Mathematics

Time: 25 minutes for 18 questions

Directions: This section contains two different types of questions. For Questions 1–8, choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. For Questions 9–18, follow the separate directions provided before those questions.

Notes:

 You may use a calculator.

 All numbers used in this exam are real numbers.

 All figures lie in a plane.

 All figures may be assumed to be to scale unless the problem specifically indicates otherwise.

There are 360 degrees of arc in a circle.

There are 180 degrees in a straight line.

There are 180 degrees in the sum of the interior angles of a triangle.

1. What is the result when –8 is subtracted from 10?

(A) 18

(B) 2

(C) –2

(D) –18

(E) –80

2. A certain shipping company charges $3.99 per pound for packages of 15 pounds or less, and $3.49 per pound for packages weighing more than 15 pounds. If Lyle sends two 10-pound packages, and Gretchen sends one 20-pound package, what is the difference between their total costs?

(A) $0

(B) $0.50

(C) $7.50

(D) $10

(E) $69.80

3. How many degrees of arc does the minute hand of a clock cover in 20 minutes?

(A) 180

(B) 120

(C) 60

(D) 30

(E) 20

4. How many total triangles (of any size) are in this drawing?

(A) 9

(B) 10

(C) 11

(D) 12

(E) 13

5. Which of the following numbers is the smallest?

(A) π

(B) 31⁄7

(C) 3.14

(D)

(E)

6. What is the value in degrees of a in this diagram?

(A) 38

(B) 76

(C) 90

(D) 109

(E) 142

Questions 7 and 8 both deal with the equation , where .

7. For what value of x does this equation have no solution?

(A) –2

(B) –1

(C) 0

(D) 1

(E) 2

8. When the equation has a solution, x =

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) b + 2

(E) a – 2b

Directions for student-produced response Questions 9–18: Solve the problem and then write your answer in the boxes on the answer sheet. Then mark the ovals corresponding to your answer as shown in the following example. Note the fraction line and the decimal points.

 Although you do not have to write the solutions in the boxes, you do have to blacken the corresponding ovals. You should fill in the boxes to avoid confusion. Only the blackened ovals will be scored. The numbers in the boxes will not be read.

 There are no negative answers.

 Mixed numbers, such as 31⁄2, may be gridded in as a decimal (3.5) or as a fraction (7⁄2). Do not grid in 31⁄2; it will be read as 31⁄2.

 Grid in a decimal as far as possible. Do not round your answer and leave some boxes empty.

 A question may have more than one answer. Grid in one answer only.

9. If 21⁄2 sticks of butter measure 20 tablespoons, how many tablespoons are in 4 sticks of butter?

10. Find the smallest even number that is divisible by 3, 5, and 7.

11. In this regular pentagon, find the sum, in degrees, of the angles a, b, c, d, and e.

12. A certain fraction is equivalent to 2⁄3. If the fraction’s denominator is 12 less than twice its numerator, find the denominator of the fraction.

13. Find a solution to the equation p2 = 3p + 40.

14. A sequence of numbers begins 1, 5, 4, 8, 7, 11, 10. What would be the 21st term of this sequence?

15. In this diagram, lines l and m are parallel. Find a – b, in degrees.

16. If all the integers from 1 to 2,010 inclusive were written down, how many total digits would appear?

17. If xy = 120, and , find x + y.

18. The shortest side of triangle T is 10 cm long, and triangle T’s area is 84 cm2. Triangle U is similar to triangle T, and the shortest side of triangle U is 15 cm long. Find the area of triangle U in cm2.

Section 6

Multiple-Choice Writing

Time: 25 minutes for 35 questions

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Directions for Questions 1–11: Each sentence is followed by five choices. Decide which choice best improves the sentence. If the underlined portion of the sentence is best left alone, choose (A).

Example: Bert and him went to the store to buy boots in preparation for the approaching storm.

(A) Bert and him went

(B) Bert and he went

(C) Bert and he had gone

(D) Bert and him had gone

(E) Bert and himself went

The correct answer is (B).

1. Watching the whale slide effortlessly through the water, the passengers who had all paid high prices for the voyage applauded.

(A) the passengers who had all paid high prices for the voyage applauded

(B) the passengers that had all paid high prices for the voyage applauded

(C) the passengers, who had all paid high prices for the voyage, applauded

(D) the passengers, that had all paid high prices for the voyage, applauded

(E) the passengers all paid high prices for the voyage and applauded

2. The star shortstop was more skillful at fielding ground balls than anyone on her team.

(A) more skillful at fielding ground balls than anyone

(B) more skillful at fielding ground balls than anyone else

(C) the most skilled at fielding ground balls than anyone

(D) skillful at fielding ground balls more than anyone

(E) more skilled at fielding ground balls, than anyone

3. Not only sipping extremely hot coffee but also if you pick up a heated plate without an oven mitt can be dangerous.

(A) but also if you pick up a heated plate

(B) but also, if you pick up a heated plate

(C) but also to pick up a heated plate

(D) but also picking up a heated plate

(E) but also if you were picking up a heated plate

4. When the supermarket chain added a prepared foods section, it was clearly a wise move.

(A) When the supermarket chain added a prepared foods section, it

(B) The supermarket chain added a prepared foods section, and it

(C) The supermarket chain having added a prepared foods section, it

(D) The supermarket chain’s adding a prepared foods section

(E) The supermarket chain adding a prepared foods section

5. Everyone in the chorus, except Tomas and I, is going to wear a black robe for tonight’s concert.

(A) the chorus, except Tomas and I, is going

(B) the chorus except Tomas and I is going

(C) the chorus, except Tomas and I, are going

(D) the chorus, except Tomas and me, is going

(E) the chorus, accept Tomas and I, is going

6. The photograph that everyone is searching for, which was taken last July, has been sitting in my album for three weeks and is still there.

(A) was taken last July, has been sitting

(B) had been taken last July, has been sitting

(C) has taken last July, has been sitting

(D) was taken last July, have been sitting

(E) was taken last July, will have been sitting

7. The huge slate of candidates means that the voters may select whoever they like the best for the post of vice-president.

(A) whoever they like the best

(B) whoever they like best

(C) whoever they like better

(D) who they like the best

(E) whomever they like the best

8. By the time students from low-income families graduate from college, they will have acquired a substantial debt.

(A) they will have acquired a substantial debt

(B) they has acquired a substantial debt

(C) they acquired a substantial debt

(D) they would have acquired a substantial debt

(E) a substantial debt will be acquired by them

9. To write a good essay, a dictionary and a word-processing program are helpful.

(A) To write a good essay, a dictionary and a word-processing program are helpful.

(B) A dictionary and a word-processing program are helpful to write a good essay.

(C) To write a good essay, a dictionary and a word-processing program is helpful.

(D) Writing a good essay, a dictionary and a word-processing program are helpful.

(E) To write a good essay, you may find that a dictionary and a word-processing program are helpful.

10. She feels very bad about having forgotten the little boy’s name, but she plans to apologize for the lapse.

(A) She feels very bad about having ­forgotten

(B) She feels very badly about having ­forgotten

(C) She feels very badly about forgetting

(D) She feels very badly that she forgot

(E) Having forgotten, she feels bad about

11. There’s three pencils and a stack of paper on the editor’s desk, supplies for the busy reporters of a major newspaper.

(A) There’s three pencils and a stack of paper

(B) There are three pencils and a stack of paper

(C) There is three pencils and a stack of paper

(D) They’re three pencils and a stack of paper

(E) There is a stack of paper and three ­pencils

Directions for Questions 30–35: These questions are based on the following essay. Choose the best answer to each question.

30. The best revision for Sentence 1 is

(A) In choosing a college the possibility of studying in a foreign country should be considered. (no change)

(B) Everyone should consider the possibility of studying in a foreign country when they are choosing a college.

(C) To choose a college, consider the possibility that you may study abroad.

(D) In choosing a college, consider the possibility of foreign study.

(E) Everyone, in choosing a college, should consider whether they can study abroad.

31. A good revision for Sentence 2 is

(A) Whether saying guten tag or buenos dias or bon jour, the chance to learn about another culture cannot be duplicated. (no change)

(B) Whether you say guten tag or buenos dias or bon jour, the chance to learn about another culture is unique and can’t be duplicated.

(C) Whether you say guten tag or buenos dias or bon jour, the chance to learn about another culture is unique.

(D) The chance to learn about another culture can’t be duplicated according to whether one says guten tag or buenos dias or bon jour.

(E) It doesn’t matter whether you say guten tag or buenos dias or bon jour, the chance to learn about another culture can’t be duplicated.

32. The best way to combine Sentences 4 and 5 is

(A) I studied in Spain, I learned about Spanish history from people who lived it.

(B) Studied in Spain, I learned about Spanish history from people who lived it.

(C) I studied in Spain, and I learned about Spanish history from people who lived it.

(D) When I studied in Spain, I learned about Spanish history from people who lived it.

(E) Given that I studied in Spain, I learned about Spanish history from people who lived it.

33. The main purpose of Paragraph 2 is to

(A) explain that foreign schools are superior to American universities

(B) argue with the reader who sees disadvantages to foreign study

(C) support the idea that studying abroad gives insight into culture

(D) give the reader an impression of life in Spain

(E) introduce the narrator of the piece on a personal level

34. How should Sentences 9 and 10 be combined?

(A) Students go to many countries for this sort of education, and they return better than when they went because not only are their language skills improved.

(B) Students return better than when they went from many countries, in more than language skills.

(C) Not only language skills improve when students studying in foreign countries.

(D) Students’ language skills are not the only improvement.

(E) Students better their language skills and other things.

35. What is the best revision of Sentence 11?

(A) In a recent study by psychologists it says that students who have lived in more than one country show more tolerance of the different customs they may encounter in their daily life. (no change)

(B) A recent psychological study reported that students who have lived in more than one country show more tolerance of different customs encountered in daily life.

(C) A recent study by psychologists says that students who have lived in more than one country show more tolerance of the different customs they may encounter in their daily life.

(D) In a recent study by psychologists it says that students who have lived in more than one country are more tolerant of different customs in their daily life.

(E) More tolerance of different customs they may encounter in daily life is the result of living abroad, according to a recent psychology study.

Section 7

Critical Reading

Time: 20 minutes for 22 questions

Direction: Choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Directions for Questions 1–6: Select the answer that best fits the meaning of the sentence.

Example: Fearful of _______ insulting his host, Mike read a book about the etiquette of the country he was visiting.

(A) purposely

(B) politely

(C) happily

(D) accidentally

(E) unconsciously

The answer is (D).

1. Once dozens of tailors created traditional bull-fighting suits, but a sharp _____ in the popularity of the sport has reduced that number to five.

(A) expansion

(B) regression

(C) decline

(D) escalation

(E) limit

2. Because the child was _____ and the parents were unwilling to _____ her, the tour’s progress through the museum was halted.

(A) intractable . . . force

(B) eager . . . urge

(C) confused . . . instruct

(D) recalcitrant . . . indulge

(E) enthusiastic . . . coax

3. The _____ student painstakingly checked and rechecked every answer to eliminate any careless mistakes.

(A) indolent

(B) vigorous

(C) imprudent

(D) diligent

(E) lackadaisical

4. True _____ do not waver even when confronted by overwhelming obstacles.

(A) cynics

(B) idealists

(C) realists

(D) pessimists

(E) skeptics

5. The proposed development project was vetoed by the mayor, who cited environmental _____, including air pollution resulting from an expanded population.

(A) growth

(B) renumeration

(C) complications

(D) benefits

(E) concerns

6. The star’s _____ image, presented in countless photos, belied her _____ past.

(A) simplistic . . . complicated

(B) ordinary . . . aristocratic

(C) wholesome . . . notorious

(D) omnipresent . . . missing

(E) imperfect . . . restricted

Directions for Questions 7–18: Choose the best answer from information supplied or implied by the passages.

This passage from Ice Blink by Scott Cookman (Wiley) discusses early 19th-century explorer John Franklin’s search for a northwest passage, a shorter, safer, Arctic route to the Far East.

7. The first paragraph (Lines 1–10) implies that Franklin’s plan

(A) relied on established routes

(B) would be difficult if not impossible

(C) depended upon chance

(D) was well thought out

(E) could be accomplished easily by anyone brave enough to try

8. In the context of this passage, light (Line 14) may best be defined as

(A) illuminating

(B) insignificant

(C) spiritual

(D) all-knowing

(E) perceptive

9. Governor Simpson’s comment (Lines 18–19) that “Tea is indispensable” shows

(A) the need for hot beverages in a cold ­climate

(B) the universal appeal of tea

(C) that Simpson judged Franklin fit to lead the expedition

(D) that Franklin intended to maintain high standards during his trip

(E) Simpson’s poor opinion of Franklin’s ability to adapt to the wilderness

10. The author’s comment that “Franklin set out like an unprepared summer camper” (Lines 21–22) is intended to

(A) contrast with Governor Simpson’s point of view

(B) relate Franklin’s journey to the reader’s personal experience

(C) stress that the voyage took place during warm weather

(D) emphasize how greatly Franklin ­underestimated the difficulty of the expedition

(E) elicit sympathy for Franklin

11. The material in quotation marks in Paragraph 3 (Lines 23–27) is most likely drawn from

(A) a biography of Franklin

(B) a diary kept by Franklin during the expedition

(C) an account by the Native American guides

(D) Governor Simpson’s records

(E) a scholarly book on the Franklin expedition

12. Franklin’s leadership, according to the passage,

(A) relied on threats

(B) took into account the needs of the expedition members

(C) did not take into account the abilities of the Native Americans

(D) was based on meticulous planning

(E) changed in a wilderness setting

13. August 19th (Line 50) is cited because

(A) the author had good records of the events of that date

(B) Franklin made a crucial mistake on that date

(C) the Native Americans saw that date as the midpoint of summer

(D) it was a turning point of the expedition

(E) it was a rare point of agreement between the Native Americans and Franklin

14. The argument about weather between Franklin and Akaitcho

(A) emphasizes Franklin’s incompetence

(B) shows that Franklin’s confidence is ­justified

(C) is never resolved

(D) reveals the prejudices of both Franklin and Akaitcho

(E) illustrates the superiority of scientific instruments

15. The mutinies are described as “near” (Line 81) because

(A) they rose above the level of threats

(B) they did not break out into open fighting

(C) they were led by people close to Franklin

(D) they occurred close together in time

(E) they took place within the expedition itself

16. The author would most likely disagree with which statement?

(A) Franklin’s travel plan was too ambitious.

(B) Governor Simpson should not have approved Franklin’s expedition.

(C) Native American ability to predict the weather is overrated.

(D) Arctic travel should not be attempted without adequate preparation.

(E) Franklin’s arrogance was a factor in the failure of his expedition.

17. By mentioning the temperature in December (Line 89) the author implies that

(A) Franklin was correct in his estimation of the weather

(B) Akaitcho was wrong

(C) the temperature was severe but not life-threatening

(D) Franklin’s expedition could not have survived such a temperature

(E) the cold weather was far off

18. A good title for this passage is

(A) Foolish Expeditions

(B) Early Explorers

(C) The Franklin Expedition

(D) Akaitcho and Franklin: A Cultural Clash

(E) The Northwest Passage

Directions for Questions 19–22: Choose the best answer from the information supplied or implied by the passages.

Passage I is an excerpt from The House of Science by Philip R. Holzinger (Wiley). It discusses the origins of the earth. Passage II is an excerpt from The Big Splat, or How Our Moon Came to Be by Dana Mackenzie (Wiley). In Passage II the author discusses Immanuel Kant’s theories on the origin and nature of the solar system.

19. The exclamation point at the end of Passage I

(A) emphasizes the great contrast between the earth we know today and the earth when it was formed

(B) reveals that the molten earth was hotter than the earth today

(C) shows that the author disapproves of this theory of the earth’s formation

(D) stresses the dangers of radioactive material

(E) underlines the danger of molten minerals

20. In the context of Passage I, “forbidding” (Lines 10–11) means

(A) hindering

(B) denying

(C) not allowing

(D) possessing difficult characteristics

(E) hot

21. In Passage II, the best interpretation of “end of story” (Line 16) is that

(A) the solar system would end after a complete collapse

(B) there is no more to say about Kant’s theory

(C) Kant’s theory is completely incorrect

(D) Kant could not reason further than this point

(E) a point, like a period, ends a story

22. Both passages primarily concern

(A) astronomy

(B) astrology

(C) theories later proved wrong

(D) the beginnings of planets and other heavenly bodies

(E) science

Section 8

Mathematics

Time: 15 minutes for 16 questions

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Notes:

 You may use a calculator.

 All numbers used in this exam are real numbers.

 All figures lie in a plane.

 All figures may be assumed to be to scale unless the problem specifically indicates otherwise.

There are 360 degrees of arc in a circle.

There are 180 degrees in a straight line.

There are 180 degrees in the sum of the interior angles of a triangle.

1. In football, a touchdown is worth 6 points, a field goal is worth 3 points, and an extra point is worth 1 point. Which formula represents the total number of points scored by a team if they scored t touchdowns, f field goals, and e extra points?

(A) 6t + 3f + e

(B) t6 + f3 + e

(C) 6(t + 3f + e)

(D) 3+ 6f + e

(E) (6 + t) + (3 + f) + (1 + e)

2. Sean claims that every number is either prime or the product of two primes. Which number could Vickie use to disprove Sean’s statement?

(A) 2

(B) 10

(C) 15

(D) 18

(E) 57

3. On a number line, four evenly spaced marks are placed between –2 and 13. What is the coordinate of the second such mark?

(A) 1

(B) 4

(C) 5.5

(D) 7

(E) 7.5

4. What is the length of a rectangle whose perimeter is 40 inches and whose width is 8 inches?

(A) 21⁄2 inches

(B) 5 inches

(C) 12 inches

(D) 16 inches

(E) 32 inches

5. Owen needs to travel 400 miles in 8 hours. If he averages m miles per hour for the first three hours, what does his average speed need to be for the remaining 5 hours?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) 50 – m⁄3

(E) 80 – 3m

6. Which point is not 5 units from the origin?

(A) (–5, 0)

(B) (5, 5)

(C) (3, –4)

(D) (0, 5)

(E) (0, –5)

7. Find the perimeter of a square whose diagonal has length  m.

(A) 6 m

(B)  m

(C) 24 m

(D)  m

(E) 48 m

8. How many two-digit numbers contain one even digit and one odd digit?

(A) 20

(B) 25

(C) 45

(D) 50

(E) 55

9. Which of these three triangles must be a right triangle? (Figures are not drawn to scale.)

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) I and III

(D) II and III

(E) I, II, and III

10. If d1/2 + 5 = 9, then d–1 =

(A) –16

(B) –4

(C) –2

(D) 1⁄2

(E) 1⁄16

Questions 11 and 12 use the following graphs.

11. If 5,000 students attended State U in 1995, how many majored in history or English?

(A) 185

(B) 425

(C) 500

(D) 925

(E) 1,850

12. Which is a valid conclusion, based on the graphs alone?

(A) More students majored in English in 2000 than in 1995.

(B) More students majored in business in 1995 than in 2000.

(C) History was the most popular major in 1995.

(D) Fewer students majored in economics in 1995 than in 2000.

(E) In 2000, more students majored in engineering than in English.

13. Four consecutive even integers are written down. Which of the following statements must be true?

(A) The average (arithmetic mean) of the numbers is even.

(B) The median of the numbers is even.

(C) The sum of the numbers is 21⁄2 times the largest number.

(D) The median is not one of the numbers on the list.

(E) The largest number on the list is more than twice as large as the smallest.

14. Let >n be defined as the smallest perfect square greater than n. For example, >3 = 4 and >4 = 9. Which of the following is equal to >5 + >9?

(A) >10

(B) >14

(C) >20

(D) >25

(E) >45

15. If j2 > j, and j3 > j, but j2 > j3, then which of the following must be true?

(A) j < –1

(B) –1 < j < 0

(C) 0 < j < 1

(D) 1 < j < 2

(E) > 2

16. In this diagram, where O is the center of the circle, find the measure of angle P, in degrees.

(A) 32

(B) 36

(C) 45

(D) 58

(E) 64

Section 9

Multiple-Choice Writing

Time: 10 minutes for 14 questions

Directions: Each sentence is followed by five choices. Decide which choice best improves the sentence, and darken the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. If the underlined portion of the sentence is best left alone, choose (A).

Example: Bert and him went to the store to buy boots in preparation for the approaching storm.

(A) Bert and him went

(B) Bert and he went

(C) Bert and he had gone

(D) Bert and him had gone

(E) Bert and himself went

The correct answer is (B).

1. Either windmills or solar power are planned for that building’s heating system in order to comply with the highest environmental standards.

(A) Either wind mills or solar power are planned for that building’s heating system

(B) Either wind mills or solar power is planned for that building’s heating system

(C) Either wind mills or solar power are in the plan for that building’s heating system

(D) Wind mills or solar power, being planned for that building’s heating system

(E) Planned for that building’s heating system are either wind mills or solar power

2. Before e-mail is delivered to your inbox, every message goes through a filter that weeds out junk mail.

(A) every message goes through

(B) every message goes by

(C) every one of your messages go through

(D) it goes through

(E) it will go through

3. If a person naps for just a short time every day, they will be more relaxed and efficient.

(A) If a person naps for just a short time every day, they will be more relaxed and efficient.

(B) If a person naps for just a short time every day, you will be more relaxed and efficient.

(C) If a person naps for just a short time every day, they will be more relaxed and work more efficiently.

(D) If a person naps for just a short time every day, he or she will be more relaxed and efficient.

(E) Napping for just a short time every day, they will be more relaxed and efficient.

4. The level of skill needed to create stained glass are the same as metalwork.

(A) are the same as metalwork

(B) are the same as metalwork’s

(C) are the same as the level of skill needed for metalwork

(D) and metalwork’s are the same

(E) and metalwork is the same

5. Hampered by injury, the sprinter took as long as ten minutes or many more minutes to cover the same distance he had once run in 5.5 minutes.

(A) as long as ten minutes or many more minutes

(B) ten minutes, or even more,

(C) at least ten minutes

(D) ten minutes, which is more than ever before

(E) more than ten minutes, and some ­minutes in addition,

6. Elaborate costumes, being part of the Halloween parade, which gives enjoyment to both spectators and participants.

(A) costumes, being part of the Halloween parade, which

(B) costumes are part of the Halloween parade, which

(C) costumes, being part of the Halloween parade, that

(D) costumes, as part of the Halloween parade, which

(E) costumes, which are part of the Halloween parade and they

7. San Francisco is famous for its cable cars, and they climb the steep hills of that city, and they attract many tourists.

(A) and they climb the steep hills of that city, and they attract

(B) and they climb the steep hills of that city, they attract

(C) which climb the steep hills of that city and attract

(D) that, as they climb the steep hills of that city, they attract

(E) climbing the steep hills of that city, and attracting

8. The longer that actor plays a role, the more he understands his character.

(A) The longer that actor plays a role, the more he understands his character.

(B) The longer that actor plays a role, and the more he understands his character.

(C) The longer that actor plays a role; the more he understands his character.

(D) If that actor plays a role longer, he understands his character more and more.

(E) That actor, playing a role for more time, understands his character more.

9. Some gardeners prefer to start seedlings indoors during the last weeks of winter, so they will have a head start when the weather warms in the spring.

(A) so they will have

(B) in order that they will have

(C) so the plants, they will have

(D) so the plants will have

(E) although they will have

10. Colors affect you in subtle, unconscious ways, having meaning that you are not aware of but it’s in your mind.

(A) unconscious ways, having meaning that you are not aware of but it’s in your mind

(B) unconscious ways

(C) unconsciously, having meaning that you are not aware of

(D) unconscious ways, but they’re in your mind

(E) unconscious ways you are not aware of

11. Being on deadline and hoping to impress the boss, the stock analyst prepared the report really quick.

(A) prepared the report really quick

(B) had prepared the report really quick

(C) prepared the report really quickly

(D) prepared the report real quickly

(E) preparing the report really quick

12. The Board of Directors appointed an investigator for to discover why profits plummeted in the last year.

(A) appointed an investigator for to discover

(B) had appointed an investigator for to discover

(C) appointed an investigator with the intention of discovering

(D) appointed an investigator to discover

(E) appointed an investigator who has a job to discover

13. The orchid is one of the many plants in his greenhouse that has not flourished.

(A) that has not flourished

(B) which it not having flourished

(C) that was not flourishing

(D) which has not flourished

(E) that have not flourished

14. Colleges now offer students many more electives, and it has sometimes confused freshmen trying to decide which courses to take.

(A) and it has sometimes confused

(B) which has sometimes confused

(C) and the choices have sometimes confused

(D) sometimes confused

(E) and sometimes confused