SAT For Dummies

Part V

Where the Rubber Meets the Road: Practice Tests

Chapter 24

Practice Exam 3

You don’t have to do the practice exams in order, but most people tend to start at one and move forward in the number line. So I’m assuming that you’ve already bolted yourself to a chair for seven hours of testing — not all at one time, I hope. (If this is your first practice exam, turn to Practice Exam 1 in Chapter 20 and read the introduction for a few general guidelines.) After you have two exams in the rearview mirror, you probably know which areas are your strengths and which areas call for extra attention. Apply that knowledge to this practice test. Go a little faster through your best sections, and turn your concentration dial up to maximum when you hit the hard spots.

When you complete this exam, dance or snowboard or tweet or do something nonacademic. Then check your work in Chapter 25 and use the scoring guidelines in the appendix to determine your SAT score.

Note: The real SAT you take will have ten sections, instead of the nine you see here, because the College Board throws in an “equating section” that doesn’t count toward your score but allows the testers to evaluate new questions. The SAT doesn’t tell you which section is useless (to you). Because I’m here to help you score high on the SAT, I don’t include an equating section in any of the practice tests in this book. Nice of me, huh?

Answer Sheet

For Section 1, use two sheets of loose-leaf or notebook paper to write your essay. For the questions in Sections 2 through 9, use the ovals and grid-ins to record your answers. Begin with Number 1 for each new section. If any sections have fewer than 35 questions, leave the extra spaces blank.

Section 2: Critical Reading

Section 3: Mathematics

Section 4: Critical Reading

Section 5: Mathematics

Section 6: Multiple-Choice Writing

Section 7: Critical Reading

Section 8: Mathematics

Section 9: Multiple-Choice Writing

Section 1

The Essay

Time: 25 minutes

Directions: In response to the following prompt, write an essay on a separate sheet of paper (the answer sheet). You may use extra space in the question booklet to take notes and to organize your thoughts, but only the answer sheet will be graded.

“They that soar too high, often fall hard; which makes a low and level Dwelling preferable.” — William Penn

“The credit belongs to the man who . . . at the best knows in the end the triumph of high achievement and who at the worst, if he fails, at least he fails while daring greatly. . . . his place shall never be with those cold and timid souls who know neither victory nor defeat.” — Theodore Roosevelt

Does ambition help or harm? Should one attempt something that seems impossible, or is it better to create goals that are clearly achievable? In a well-organized essay, address these questions, developing and supporting your point of view by drawing upon history, literature, current events, or your own experience and observations.

Section 2

Critical Reading

Time: 25 minutes for 24 questions

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Directions for Questions 1–8: Select the answer that best fits the meaning of the sentence.

Example: After he had broken the dining room window, Hal’s mother _____ him.

(A) selected

(B) serenaded

(C) fooled

(D) scolded

(E) rewarded

The answer is (D).

1. Because filmmaker James Woody is so identified with New York City, the announcement that his next film would be set in rural Oregon _____ critics.

(A) mystified

(B) attracted

(C) confused

(D) delighted

(E) surprised

2. The shy smiles of the celebrity _____ fans who believed that she was _____.

(A) amused . . . outgoing

(B) amazed . . . diffident

(C) reassured . . . depressed

(D) antagonized . . . talented

(E) appalled . . . celebrated

3. The resort’s marketing campaign was so _____ that it attracted not only the wealthy but also those of limited means.

(A) broad

(B) narrow

(C) effective

(D) imaginative

(E) innovative

4. The _____ of the cellphone means that workers required to carry them are never out of reach of their employers.

(A) divisiveness

(B) insignificance

(C) versatility

(D) tyranny

(E) proliferation

5. Ultimately the complexity of the subject demands a _____ approach instead of the generalizations _____ by that commentator.

(A) heavy-handed . . . envisioned

(B) nuanced . . . spouted

(C) confrontational . . . presented

(D) problematic . . . championed

(E) basic . . . rejected

6. It is essential, when new technology becomes _____, to examine its impact on society and culture.

(A) innovative

(B) redundant

(C) lucrative

(D) versatile

(E) pervasive

7. He was a _____ reader, seldom without his nose in a book.

(A) voracious

(B) competitive

(C) instinctive

(D) implausible

(E) sporadic

8. Success didn’t come to that executive _____ but rather as a result of years of _____.

(A) suddenly . . . education

(B) unexpectedly . . . effort

(C) haphazardly . . . planning

(D) undeservedly . . . infighting

(E) randomly . . . experimentation

Directions for Questions 9–20: Choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passages or in the introductory material.

These two passages, from different authors, refer to events that took place during World War I.

9. The phrase “as if by magic” (Line 4) implies that the author

(A) believes the Belgian army is ill-prepared for battle

(B) is unaware that the Belgian army is on the move

(C) did not see the preparations of the Belgian army

(D) hopes for a miraculous victory for the Belgian army

(E) did not realize that Belgian troops were capable of swift movement

10. The “deadly earnestness” mentioned in Line 9 is illustrated by which of the following selections from Passage I?

(A) “the whole community is agog” (Line 11)

(B) “recruits are being drilled among the apple trees in the orchard” (Lines 24–26)

(C) “Dutch patience was at last exhausted” (Line 36)

(D) “scores of automobiles are racing past like mad things” (Lines 40–41)

(E) “The men, their goods; the women, their sons” (Lines 46–47)

11. In the context of Lines 10–11, “positively charged” may best be defined as

(A) filled with excitement

(B) polluted

(C) disrupted by static

(D) confused

(E) optimistic

12. The third paragraph of Passage I (Lines 27–38)

(A) shows how patriotic citizens should react to the war

(B) criticizes “Monsieur X.” for withholding supplies

(C) reveals the stinginess of the cook

(D) portrays the soldiers as hungry boys

(E) indicts the government for failing to supply adequate rations to the troops

13. Lines 39–48 imply that

(A) the Government seizes private property for no reason

(B) men and women are equally involved in the war

(C) women’s most important concern is their families

(D) the population makes sacrifices ­willingly

(E) war is frightening

14. Based on the comment, “We ourselves are laying in a supply of things in case of necessity” (Lines 55–56), with which statement would the author agree?

(A) Food supplies may be erratic in wartime.

(B) In a farming community, food is a major source of income.

(C) Food supplies should be stored in the kitchen.

(D) The Government must stockpile sufficient food to feed the populace.

(E) Every family is an independent entity.

15. The author’s tone in Passage I may be characterized as

(A) regretful

(B) nostalgic

(C) excited

(D) amazed

(E) antagonistic

16. According to Lines 64–70, American travelers in war-stricken countries were worse off than Europeans because the Americans were

(A) considered enemy combatants

(B) short of food

(C) unable to exchange gold for food

(D) too poor to buy food

(E) farther from home

17. The purpose of Lines 92–99 is to

(A) contrast the dire situation of American tourists with the mood of Londoners

(B) show how Britain helped America during the war

(C) describe the plight of Londoners

(D) criticize Americans who fled to London

(E) explain the role of the American Ambassador

18. What is the best definition of “want” in the context of Line 108?

(A) desire

(B) need

(C) discomfort

(D) wish

(E) absence

19. The main idea of Passage II is

(A) the situation of Americans in Europe when war broke out

(B) changes in the money supply during World War I

(C) the dangers of tourism

(D) the horrors of war

(E) American self-sufficiency

20. Which statement about these two passages is correct?

(A) Passage I is more general than Passage II.

(B) Passage I provides an overview, while Passage II is an eyewitness account.

(C) Passage I is more personal than Passage II.

(D) Passage II is narrower in focus than Passage I.

(E) Passage I was written later than Passage II.

Directions for Questions 21–24: Two questions follow each of the passages below. Choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passages.

21. According to the passage, in what way do people who live in the country differ from those who reside in the city?

(A) Country people need more water.

(B) City residents are more concerned about the cost of water.

(C) Adequate water supply is not a problem for country people.

(D) Country dwellers may recognize a problem only if their own water supply is affected.

(E) City and country residents compete for water.

22. The main idea of the article from which this passage is excerpted most likely concerns

(A) water allocation and safety

(B) tax policy

(C) the benefits of rural life

(D) the availability of information to residents of rural areas

(E) the rivalry between country and city dwellers

In the light of day their breath of vague terror was dissipated. There was no place for mystery nor dread under this floor of brilliant sunshine. The smiling sapphire floor rolled ever on before us. . . . I had proven, almost to my own satisfaction, that what we had beheld had been a creation of the extraordinary atmospheric attributes of these highlands, an atmosphere so unique as to make almost anything of the kind possible. But Drake was not convinced.

23. The “extraordinary atmospheric attributes” refers to

(A) the scenic vista

(B) air quality

(C) air pressure

(D) the weather

(E) mysterious visions

24. Based on the information in the passage, which statement might Drake make to the narrator?

(A) The mystery is solved.

(B) A new day improves every situation.

(C) The unique weather of the highlands does not explain what we saw.

(D) Sunshine has calmed my fears.

(E) You and I agree about what we ­witnessed.

Section 3

Mathematics

Time: 25 minutes for 18 questions

Directions: This section contains two different types of questions. For Questions 1–8, choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. For Questions 9–18, follow the separate directions provided before those questions.

Notes:

 You may use a calculator.

 All numbers used in this exam are real numbers.

 All figures lie in a plane.

 All figures may be assumed to be to scale unless the problem specifically indicates ­otherwise.

There are 360 degrees of arc in a circle.

There are 180 degrees in a straight line.

There are 180 degrees in the sum of the interior angles of a triangle.

1. A student walked at a rate of 10 feet per second for 2 seconds, then at 15 feet per second for 3 seconds. Her average speed, in feet per second, was

(A) 12

(B) 12.5

(C) 13

(D) 13.5

(E) 14

2. If a = 1⁄2, b = 2⁄3, and c = 5⁄8, which of the following is true?

(A) c < b < a

(B) c < a < b

(C) b < c < a

(D) a < c

(E) a < c < b

3. Given that f(x) = x3, for which number is f(x) < x?

(A) –2

(B) –1

(C) 0

(D) 1

(E) 2

4. PQRS is a parallelogram, three of whose coordinates are shown. The coordinates of point Q must be

(A) (a + nb)

(B) (a + 2nb)

(C) (c + nb)

(D) (c – nb)

(E) (c – 2nb)

5. In a list of consecutive odd integers, the second number can be represented by x. The first number in the list could be represented by

(A) x – 3

(B) x – 2

(C) – 1

(D) x + 1

(E) + 2

6. If p is divisible by 12, and q is divisible by 20, then p + q must be divisible by

I. 2

II. 4

III. 32

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) III only

(D) I and II only

(E) I, II, and III

7. Two lines in the coordinate plane, l and m, pass through the point (3, 4). Line l also passes through (5, 8). If line m is perpendicular to line l, then line m also passes through

(A) (0, 0)

(B) (1, 5)

(C) (1, 8)

(D) (5, 0)

(E) (8, 5)

8. What is the total area of the trapezoid pictured above?

(A)

(B)

(C) 64

(D)

(E)

Directions for student-produced response Questions 9–18: Solve the problem and then write your answer in the boxes on the answer sheet. Mark the ovals corresponding to the answer, as shown in the following example. Note the fraction line and the decimal points.

Although you do not have to write the solutions in the boxes, you do have to blacken the corresponding ovals. You should fill in the boxes to avoid confusion. Only the blackened ovals will be scored. The numbers in the boxes will not be read.

There are no negative answers.

Mixed numbers, such as 31⁄2, may be gridded in as a decimal (3.5) or as a fraction (7⁄2). Do not grid in 31⁄2; it will be read as 31⁄2.

Grid in a decimal as far as possible. Do not round your answer and leave some boxes empty.

A question may have more than one answer. Grid in one answer only.

9. If x + 100 = 2x, what is the value of x?

10. A rectangle’s length is twice its width. If its area is 32 square inches, find its width, in inches.

11. The height of an object thrown in the air with an initial velocity of 96 feet per second can be modeled by the function , where h is in feet and t is in seconds. What would be the ball’s maximum height, in feet?

12. If 20 percent of half a number is 17, what was the original number?

13. The pie graph above shows the percentage of students who take each foreign language at a certain high school. If 260 students take either French or Spanish, how many students go to the school?

14. If the area of an equilateral triangle is , find the length of one of its sides.

15. If w2 – v2 = 54 and w – v = 9, find the value of 2w + 2v.

16. What is the value of the smallest number that is divisible by 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6?

17. The polygon shown has nine sides. How many additional lines must be drawn in order to make sure that every vertex (corner) is connected to every other vertex?

18. Car rental company A charges $80 per day, plus 25 cents per mile driven. Car rental company B charges $100 per day, plus 10 cents per mile driven. If you plan on renting a car for 3 days, for what number of miles would the costs of the two cars be equivalent?

Section 4

Critical Reading

Time: 25 minutes for 24 questions

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Directions for Questions 1–5: Select the answer that best fits the meaning of the sentence.

Example: After he had broken the dining room window, Hal’s mother _____ him.

(A) selected

(B) serenaded

(C) fooled

(D) scolded

(E) rewarded

The answer is (D).

1. In everyday conversation and in the media, the new constitution was debated, though no _____ emerged.

(A) discord

(B) dissent

(C) discrepancy

(D) consensus

(E) plan

2. The goal of the seminar was not only to share information but also to build a(n) _____ group that would trust and depend upon each other.

(A) intellectual

(B) cohesive

(C) adhesive

(D) communicative

(E) hard-working

3. The executive is known for his _____ style of leadership; his subordinates know that he wants to hear their opinions and ideas, however contrary to the executive’s own views.

(A) pragmatic

(B) idealistic

(C) aggressive

(D) hierarchical

(E) inclusive

4. Compared with negotiations for other properties, which ended in lawsuits and ill will, working out the lease for that office building was a relatively _____ process.

(A) complicated

(B) swift

(C) harmonious

(D) difficult

(E) secretive

5. Her daily strolls gave her insight into the _____ rhythms of the neighborhood.

(A) quotidian

(B) exemplary

(C) inexplicable

(D) tenacious

(E) estranged

Directions for Questions 6–9: Choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passages or in the introductory material.

The first passage is excerpted from a 1919 book titled Vocational Guidance for Girls by Marguerite Stockman Dickson. The second is drawn from Small Loans, Big Dreams by Alex Counts (Wiley) and describes part of the screening process of a bank that awards small loans to poor women in Bangladesh and other countries.

6. With which statement is the author of Passage I likely to agree?

(A) Behavior is individual, not related to one’s gender.

(B) Women and men can do the same work.

(C) Society is properly organized with regard to gender.

(D) Men should share in the work of ­child-rearing.

(E) More women should work outside the home.

7. The author of Passage II would probably endorse

(A) financial independence for women

(B) loyalty to family over her own ­self-interest

(C) a husband’s leadership within the family

(D) passive acceptance of life’s ­circumstances

(E) unlimited loans for poor women

8. The “race” referred to in Line 11 is most likely

(A) a competition

(B) one’s ethnic background

(C) one’s skin color

(D) all of humanity

(E) the nation

9. The author of Passage II favors which of the following as a support system for ­borrowers?

(A) her family

(B) other women who have received loans

(C) the government

(D) the men of her village

(E) business advisors

Directions for Questions 10–15: Choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passage or in the introductory material.

The passage is excerpted from a 19th-century novel.

10. The narrator compares Miss Murdstone’s eyebrows to

(A) her brother

(B) overweight people

(C) boxes

(D) men’s whiskers

(E) a bite

11. In Lines 1–15, Miss Murdstone is “a metallic lady” in the narrator’s view for all of the following reasons EXCEPT

(A) her nasty disposition

(B) her boxes

(C) her purse

(D) her handbag

(E) the chain of her bag

12. In the context of Lines 24–25, “indifferent” may best be defined as

(A) uncaring

(B) mediocre

(C) exceptional

(D) unconventional

(E) fair

13. The narrator implies that in the future his relationship with Miss Murdstone

(A) becomes more loving

(B) is that of mentor and student

(C) revolves around her search for a hidden man

(D) is characterized by fear

(E) is helpful to his mother

14. The word “help” is in quotation marks in Line 40 because

(A) the author wishes to add emphasis to the word

(B) the word is a direct quotation from the narrator’s mother

(C) the word is a direct quotation from the narrator

(D) the word is a direct quotation from Miss Murdstone

(E) Miss Murdstone’s actions aren’t helpful

15. The interaction between the narrator and Peggotty in Lines 56–60

(A) shows the ignorance of the narrator

(B) characterizes Peggotty as ignorant

(C) reveals antagonism between the narrator and Peggotty

(D) illustrates Peggotty’s admiration for Miss Murdstone

(E) exemplifies the narrator’s inquisitive nature

Directions for Questions 16–24: Choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passage or in the introductory material.

The passage is excerpted from Rice: Origin, History, Technology, and Production (Wiley).

16. The “inception of the city and civilization” (Lines 7–8) most likely occurred

(A) before grain was cultivated

(B) around 10,000 B.C.

(C) after China began to trade with neighboring countries

(D) when wild grains died out

(E) around 2800 B.C.

17. Examples of the “unique adaptability” (Lines 15–16) of rice include all of the following EXCEPT

(A) its cultivation along the Yellow River of China

(B) rice plants in the mountains of India

(C) rice crops in the deserts of Pakistan

(D) the cultivation of rice along with other wild grains

(E) rice plants in tropical Africa

18. In the context of Line 17, “durability” may be defined as

(A) sturdiness

(B) permanence

(C) stability

(D) strength

(E) hardiness

19. In the context of this passage, the “stagnation” referred to in Line 25 was probably a long period in which human beings

(A) lived in the same place

(B) had the same traditions

(C) lived by hunting and gathering

(D) ate cultivated foods

(E) changed their diet frequently

20. The purpose of Paragraph 2 (Lines 28–43) is to

(A) show how cities resulted from the invention of agriculture

(B) relate cities to their food sources

(C) praise cities for providing grain to ­citizens

(D) criticize cities for the tension they cause between citizens

(E) connect agriculture to the raising of children

21. Which statement from Paragraph 3 (Lines 44–63) justifies the “prominent place in history” that rice “deserves” (Line 63)?

(A) “the necessity for agriculture generally is associated with the receding glaciers of the last ice age” (Lines 44–46)

(B) “the demise and retreat of large animal species” (Lines 47–48)

(C) “[t]he diversion of human energies from hunting to agriculture occupied thousands of years” (Lines 51–54)

(D) “regional and cultural distinctions arose, differentiating one civilization from another” (Lines 54–56)

(E) “the search, production, and [food] consumption are major components of human endeavor” (Lines 59–61)

22. Which title best expresses the main idea of paragraph four?

(A) Rice through the Ages

(B) The Importance of Rice

(C) Rice in Many Cultures

(D) The Rice Trade

(E) Rice in Asia

23. The fact that in India rice is “the first food offered the infant” and given “by a new bride to her husband” (Lines 70–71) suggests that rice

(A) is easily digestible

(B) symbolizes new life

(C) is available to all

(D) can be obtained without difficulty

(E) may be enjoyed by everyone

24. The best evidence that rice is an important part of the Chinese diet is that rice

(A) was traded between Egypt, India, and China

(B) was mentioned in Chinese records of 2800 B.C.

(C) has its own written character

(D) is a synonym for the Chinese word for food

(E) may be pronounced with more than one intonation

Section 5

Mathematics

Time: 25 minutes for 20 questions

Directions: Choose the best answer and darken the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Notes:

 You may use a calculator.

 All numbers used in this exam are real numbers.

 All figures lie in a plane.

 All figures may be assumed to be to scale unless the problem specifically indicates otherwise.

There are 360 degrees of arc in a circle.

There are 180 degrees in a straight line.

There are 180 degrees in the sum of the interior angles of a triangle.

1. If 4n + 6 = 34, then n equals

(A) 7

(B) 8

(C) 9

(D) 10

(E) 11

2. The angle marked “a” in the drawing above measures

(A) 30°

(B) 100°

(C) 130°

(D) 140°

(E) 150°

3. Doug is thinking of an even number that is bigger than zero but less than 10. The probability that his number is 8 is

(A) 1⁄8

(B) 1⁄6

(C) 1⁄5

(D) 1⁄4

(E) 8⁄10

4. In an 11th-grade math class, five students have no pets, eight students have one pet, four students have two pets, two students have three pets, and one student has four pets. What is the average number of pets per student in this class?

(A) about 1.16

(B) 1.3

(C) 1.55

(D) about 1.73

(E) none of the above

5. Which expression represents the number of cents, c, that a customer received from a one-dollar bill after buying n candies each costing 5 cents?

(A) c = 1 – 5n

(B) c = 100 – 5n

(C) c = 95n

(D) = 100 – 0.05n

(E) c = 1.00 – 0.05n

6. At a certain high school, the ratio of boys to girls is 4:5. Which number could not represent the total number of students in the school?

(A) 360

(B) 400

(C) 450

(D) 540

(E) 999

7. Given that ACBD is a square, its area is

(A) 12

(B) 36

(C) 72

(D) 144

(E) 288

8. Given that x and y are positive integers, and that (xy) – (x + y) is even, which of the following must be true?

(A) Both x and y must be even.

(B) Both x and y must be odd.

(C) Either x or y must be even.

(D) Either x or y must be odd.

(E) One of the two numbers must be even, and the other one must be odd.

9. Given the graph of f(x) above, f(1) would equal

(A) –2

(B) 0

(C) 2

(D) 2.5

(E) 3

10. The perimeter of the right triangle pictured above is

(A) 21 cm

(B) 36 cm

(C) 42 cm

(D) 54 cm

(E) 108 cm

11. The factors of a positive number n are all the positive numbers that n can be divided by without leaving a remainder; this includes 1 and n itself. For example, the factors of 10 are 1, 2, 5, and 10. How many positive numbers less than 50 have an odd number of factors?

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 7

(D) 16

(E) 49

12. To go on a certain amusement-park ride, you must be at least 50 inches tall, but not taller than 70 inches. Which of the following is an inequality that represents h, the height of people allowed to go on this ride?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

13. The graph above shows the weight of a hamster, in grams, over a period of several days. The linear function that best models the hamster’s weight, w, as a function of its age in days, a, is which of the following?

(A) w = 6a

(B) w = 10a

(C) w = 6a + 10

(D) w = 10a + 6

(E) w = 8a + 8

14. If x3/4= 641/2, what does x equal?

(A) 2

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 16

(E) 422/3

15. Which of the following equations has 3 as a solution?

I. x2 – 9x = 0

II. x2 + x – 12 = 0

III. x2 + 6x + 9 = 0

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) III only

(D) I and II

(E) II and III

16. A sequence of numbers is created by starting with k, and then adding 3 to the previous number to create each new number. If the 20th number in this sequence is 55, then k equals

(A) –5

(B) –2

(C) 1

(D) 5

(E) 35

17. If the diameter of circle O is 10 cm, and ABCD is a square, then the area of the shaded region in cm2 is which of the following?

(A) 25π – 50

(B) 25π – 25

(C) 50π – 50

(D) 50π – 100

(E) 100π – 100

18. If 3a + 2b = –4, and 2a + 3b = –11, then 5a – 5b =

(A) –15

(B) 5

(C) 7

(D) 15

(E) 35

19. In the drawing above, line segment XY is parallel to line segment AB. If AB = 10, XY = 6, and the area of triangle ABC is 50, then the area of triangle XYC is

(A) 18

(B) 24

(C) 30

(D) 36

(E) 44

20. Biking with the wind, a cyclist took 40 minutes to complete a ride. Biking against the wind, the cyclist took 60 minutes to complete the same ride. Assuming that the cyclist bikes 30 miles per hour without any wind, and that the wind’s speed was constant, the speed of the wind, in miles per hour, was

(A) 5

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 10

(E) There is not enough information given.

Section 6

Multiple-Choice Writing

Time: 25 minutes for 35 questions

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Directions for Questions 1–11: Each sentence is followed by five choices. Decide which choice best improves the sentence. If the underlined portion of the sentence is best left alone, choose (A).

Example: Bert and him went to the store to buy boots in preparation for the approaching storm.

(A) Bert and him went

(B) Bert and he went

(C) Bert and he had gone

(D) Bert and him had gone

(E) Bert and himself went

The correct answer is (B).

1. After the fight, Justin’s new coat was equally as ripped as Anthony’s.

(A) equally as ripped as Anthony’s

(B) as ripped as Anthony

(C) as ripped as Anthony’s

(D) equal in rips to Anthony

(E) equally ripped as Anthony

2. The municipal government, concerned about the number of traffic accidents involving bicycles, has passed a law requiring registration of every vehicle, it takes effect on January 1.

(A) registration of every vehicle, it takes effect

(B) registration of every vehicle which it takes effect

(C) all vehicles to be registered, it takes effect

(D) that every vehicle be registered, and the registration law becomes effective

(E) registration of every vehicle; the law takes effect

3. Libby’s grandfather, who carries several sets of keys, sets off the metal detector at airports more often than her relatives.

(A) more often than her relatives

(B) more often than her relatives do

(C) oftener than her relatives

(D) more often than her other relatives

(E) more often than her relatives’

4. During the first act of the play, the spotlights wobbled a little, and it had destroyed the actors’ concentration.

(A) a little, and it had destroyed the actors’ concentration

(B) a little, which was destroying the actors’ concentration

(C) a little, and the actors’ concentration, it was destroyed

(D) a little and destroyed the actors’ concentration

(E) a little because it destroyed the actors’ concentration

5. Selecting a new chief executive, the problems facing the company seemed more manageable to the trustees.

(A) the problems facing the company seemed more manageable to the trustees

(B) the trustees saw the problems facing the company as more manageable

(C) the problems were more manageable that were facing the company according to the trustees

(D) the trustees saw problems that were more manageable as they faced the company

(E) the trustees saw more manageable problems which were facing the company

6. The most common reason for computer crashes is that the operating system code contains an error.

(A) that the operating system code contains an error

(B) because the operating system code contains an error

(C) the operating system code containing an error

(D) the operating system code, that it contains an error

(E) the operating system code, that contains an error

7. The unclaimed package, which was wrapped in brown paper and which was tied with string, attracted a great deal of attention.

(A) which was wrapped in brown paper and which was tied with string

(B) wrapped in brown paper and which was tied with string

(C) that was wrapped in brown paper and that was tied with string

(D) wrapped in brown paper and tied with string

(E) which was wrapped in brown paper, and which was also tied with string

8. Rushing to the meeting before the comfortable blue chair was taken, the seat was discovered to be occupied already by Alex.

(A) the seat was discovered to be occupied already by Alex

(B) the seat was already occupied by Alex, it was discovered

(C) Alex discovered the seat was already occupied

(D) Alex discovered the seat, and it was already occupied

(E) Alex, discovering that the seat was occupied already

9. The ability to ski, ice-skate, and knowing karate were all skills Darian worked hard to perfect.

(A) The ability to ski, ice-skate, and knowing karate

(B) The ability to ski, ice-skate, and karate

(C) The ability to ski, to ice-skate, and knowing karate

(D) The ability to ski, ice-skate, and do karate

(E) Skiing, ice-skating, and to know karate

10. British writer Jane Austen lived in small towns most of her life, living in rural areas except for a short period when she lived in the city of Bath.

(A) in small towns most of her life, living in rural areas

(B) in small, rural towns most of her life

(C) in small towns most of her life, and she was living in rural areas

(D) in small towns, she lived in rural areas for most of her life

(E) in rural areas, in small towns, in which she lived for most of her life

11. The reporter for that metropolitan paper, as well as many other representatives of the media, has been pressured to identify confidential sources.

(A) media, has been pressured to identify

(B) media, have been pressured to identify

(C) media, has been pressured in that they should identify

(D) media; has been pressured to identify

(E) media, which has been pressured to identify

Directions for Questions 30–35: These questions are based on the following essay. Choose the best answer to each question.

30. Which sentence would be a good first sentence for Paragraph 1?

(A) Teenagers should be taught about nutrition.

(B) Making good choices is something that should be taught in school.

(C) School cafeterias should serve nutritious food, but many do not.

(D) It is a problem when you consider the kind of food served in school.

(E) Eating properly is important.

31. Which sentence, inserted before Sentence 4, would be a good introduction to Paragraph 2?

(A) The selection of food offered in a high school cafeteria is not based on health.

(B) Economics and taste are important.

(C) Neither economics nor taste matters in the cafeteria.

(D) American farmers grow too much food.

(E) Some farmers sell their crops to the government.

32. Which sentence below represents the best combination of Sentences 4 and 5?

(A) Some cafeteria food is bought by the government from surplus food grown by farmers.

(B) Cafeteria lunches are made of government surplus food.

(C) Bought from farmers, the government distributes surplus food to children as school lunches.

(D) Some cafeteria food comes from surplus crops, and the government buys the food from farmers and gives it to school children.

(E) Some cafeteria food comes from surplus crops, which the government buys from farmers and distributes in the form of school lunches.

33. Which sentence represents the best revision of Sentence 8?

(A) A student will put good food on his or her plate, but if you don’t like the taste, you’ll throw out the food.

(B) Students put good food on their plates, but if they don’t like the taste, they’ll throw out the food.

(C) Students, who put good food on their plates, throw it out if the taste isn’t liked.

(D) Even though a student selects good food, they may not eat it and instead throw it out.

(E) Students who select good food for their plates and don’t like it, throw it out.

34. The best revision of the portion of Sentence 11 shown below is which of the following?

If junk food would not be offered

(A) If junk food would not be offered (no change)

(B) If junk food would have been offered

(C) If junk food were offered

(D) If junk food are

(E) If junk food would be offered

35. Which sentence(s) should be removed from the last paragraph of the essay?

(A) Sentence 9

(B) Sentences 9 and 10

(C) Sentence 11

(D) Sentences 12 and 13

(E) Sentence 14

Section 7

Critical Reading

Time: 20 minutes for 19 questions

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Directions for Questions 1–6: Select the answer that best fits the meaning of the sentence.

Example: After he had broken the dining room window, Hal’s mother __________ him.

(A) selected

(B) serenaded

(C) fooled

(D) scolded

(E) rewarded

The answer is (D).

1. George pretends that his talent is _____, but he has practiced many hours each day for years to perfect his skills.

(A) innate

(B) instinctive

(C) acquired

(D) important

(E) intuitive

2. “Walking on eggshells” and other common expressions create _____ images.

(A) confusing

(B) fearful

(C) vivid

(D) unimaginable

(E) tentative

3. The boxer hopped from foot to foot in an effort to _____ his opponent’s punches.

(A) confound

(B) evade

(C) counter

(D) resist

(E) distract

4. The tiny cottage filled with old-fashioned furniture and devoid of modern appliances struck the visitor as _____.

(A) conventional

(B) convenient

(C) simplistic

(D) artificial

(E) quaint

5. The artist, early in her career, was not just _____ but actually _____.

(A) precocious . . . terrible

(B) assertive . . . aggressive

(C) talented . . . unskilled

(D) naive . . . proficient

(E) immature . . . seasoned

6. Despite the drop in temperature, patches of ice _____.

(A) persisted

(B) melted

(C) widened

(D) cracked

(E) persevered

Directions for Questions 7–19: Choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passage or in the introductory material.

The passage is an excerpt from a memoir of a young woman setting off for a year of study abroad.

7. The image of the narrator sitting on the floor (Lines 2–3) represents

(A) isolation

(B) political unrest

(C) subservience

(D) confusion

(E) guilt

8. All of these statements express similar ideas EXCEPT

(A) “I see but do not comprehend” (Line 11)

(B) “I’m not there” (Line 11)

(C) “I’m in another place already” (Line 12)

(D) “Now it’s time to leave” (Line 73)

(E) “I want them to go away so I can begin” (Lines 93–94)

9. The statement that “at least for my mother, my leaving is a very big deal” (Lines 19–20) implies that

(A) the rest of the family wants the narrator to leave

(B) the rest of the family wants the narrator to stay

(C) the narrator doesn’t understand her mother’s feelings

(D) the mother exaggerates the dangers of the trip

(E) the narrator comprehends her mother’s emotions

10. The mother’s words, “You don’t know what you can buy there” (Lines 30–31) imply that in the mother’s view

(A) American products are essential for the daughter’s well-being

(B) European products are inferior

(C) the daughter is moving beyond the mother’s knowledge and experience

(D) the mother is a more experienced traveler than her daughter

(E) the mother is worried about money

11. The narrator most likely says that “the trunk reflects [her] status” (Lines 41) because the trunk

(A) is about to be sent abroad

(B) shows the narrator’s youth through its “cartoonish” drawings (Line 34)

(C) is filled with the narrator’s belongings

(D) will be sent ahead by air

(E) is leaving the United States

12. The narrator’s fantasy about an ability to “speak and communicate with others in a way no one else in my family understood” (Lines 50–52) reveals her

(A) need for privacy

(B) belief that foreign-language learning is valuable

(C) desire to separate herself from her family

(D) confusion between reality and illusion

(E) creative ability

13. The narrator’s choice of Spanish may be attributed to

(A) her rebellion against her mother’s wishes

(B) a love of Spain

(C) the desire to be considered “cultured” (Lines 58–59)

(D) a remedial summer course in that ­language

(E) her experiences in South America

14. “I thought then” (Line 84) suggests that the narrator

(A) wants the reader to understand her thought process

(B) feels obligated to her father

(C) later reevaluated her view of her father

(D) wants to follow her father’s rules

(E) never understood her father’s request

15. The narrator repeats “I won’t” (Line 89) because she

(A) wants to reassure her family

(B) is reassuring herself

(C) fears that her family will not believe her

(D) always presents herself emphatically

(E) firmly believes the statement is true

16. Which of the following best expresses the meaning of “I’m popcorn ready to pop” (Lines 90–91) in the context of this passage?

(A) The situation is stressful.

(B) I am patient.

(C) I am angry.

(D) I am ready to start a new life.

(E) It is hard to say goodbye.

17. The “little island of discomfort” (Line 92) is equivalent to

(A) “sitting on the floor in the middle of the living room” (Lines 2–3)

(B) the trunk with “cartoonish daisies” (Line 34)

(C) “solitary walks to school” (Lines 52–53)

(D) “I didn’t exactly fit in” (Line 62)

(E) the “curving tunnel” (Line 95)

18. The fact that “Mom and Dad and Bobby get smaller and smaller” (Lines 99–100) shows that

(A) the narrator understands artistic ­perspective

(B) the family isn’t an important part of the narrator’s identity

(C) the narrator has already forgotten about her family

(D) the narrator carries an image of her family with her on the trip

(E) the family will be less influential in the narrator’s life after she leaves

19. The passage suggests that the narrator’s relationship with her family is

(A) affectionate

(B) conflicted

(C) antagonistic

(D) sympathetic

(E) hostile

Section 8

Mathematics

Time: 20 minutes for 16 questions

Directions: Choose the best answer and darken the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Notes:

 You may use a calculator.

 All numbers used in this exam are real numbers.

 All figures lie in a plane.

 All figures may be assumed to be to scale unless the problem specifically indicates otherwise.

There are 360 degrees of arc in a circle.

There are 180 degrees in a straight line.

There are 180 degrees in the sum of the interior angles of a triangle.

1. If k is an integer less than 8, then the greatest possible value of 2k – 1 is

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 13

(D) 14

(E) 15

2. The sum of the odd numbers from 3 to 11, including both 3 and 11, is

(A) 24

(B) 32

(C) 35

(D) 45

(E) 63

3. In the diagram above, lines p and q are parallel. The measure of the angle marked x is

(A) 30°

(B) 40°

(C) 50°

(D) 60°

(E) 70°

4. The price of a certain train ticket is directly proportional to the number of miles traveled. If a ten-mile trip costs $3.75, then a 24-mile trip would cost

(A) $6.15

(B) $9.00

(C) $10.50

(D) $15.00

(E) $17.75

5. If a Δ b = b2 – 3a, then –4 Δ –2 =

(A) –22

(B) –16

(C) –8

(D) 16

(E) 22

6. A function is defined by . For

what value(s) of x would the function equal 25?

(A) 12.5 only

(B) 12.5 or 

(C) 81 only

(D) 81 or –81

(E) none of the above

7. Each box in the shape above is a square. If the total area of the shape is 48 square units, then the length of AB is

(A) 5 units

(B) 10 units

(C) 20 units

(D) 40 units

(E) 80 units

8. A bag of candy was divided among four children. The first child got exactly one-fourth of the candy. Then, the second child got one-third of the candy that was left. Next, the third child got one-half of the candy remaining. Finally, the fourth child got everything left over. Which child now has the least candy?

(A) The first child got the least.

(B) The second child got the least.

(C) The third child got the least.

(D) The third and fourth children are tied for the least.

(E) All four children got the same amount of candy.

9. In the diagram above, O is the center of the large circle, and A and B are the centers of the two smaller circles. If the length of NP is 8, then the area of the shaded region is

(A) 4π

(B) 8π

(C) 16π

(D) 32π

(E) 48π

10. The graph above shows y = f(x). Which point would have to appear on the graph of y = 2f(x) + 4?

(A) (–1, 0)

(B) (0, 1)

(C) (1, 0)

(D) (2, –2)

(E) (10, 0)

11. On a hike, a student walked 10 kilometers due north, 5 kilometers due east, and 2 kilometers due south. Her distance, in a straight line, from her starting point is now closest to

(A) 2.6 kilometers

(B) 8 kilometers

(C) 9.4 kilometers

(D) 12.1 kilometers

(E) 17 kilometers

12. The expression (x – 5)2 is equivalent to

(A) x2 – 10x + 25

(B) x2 + 25

(C) x2 – 10

(D) x2 – 5x + 25

(E) x2 – 25

13. Let b equal:

2a, if a > b

b + 3, if b > a

5, if a = b

Which of the following would equal 14?

(A) 5 ~ 7

(B) 7 ~ 8

(C) 7 ~ 7

(D) 7 ~ 5

(E) 11 ~ 7

14. If it takes x widgets to make one thingumajig, and one thingumajig can produce y whatchamacallits, then the number of widgets needed to produce n whatchamacallits is

(A)

(B) nxy

(C)

(D)

(E)

15. In a deck of 12 cards, each card has one of the symbols below on each side. Some cards have the same symbols on both sides; some cards have different symbols. If every symbol appears on at least two different cards, and Symbols A and B together appear on a total of 13 sides, what is the maximum number of cards that could have Symbol D on both sides?

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

(E) Five

16. The diagram above shows two rectangles, ABCD and PQRS. If AP = 4, QR = 7, and RD = , then the area of PQRS is

(A) 84

(B)

(C) 147

(D) 231

(E)

Section 9

Multiple-Choice Writing

Time: 10 minutes for 14 questions

Directions: Each sentence is followed by five choices. Decide which choice best improves the sentence and darken the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. If the underlined portion of the sentence is best left alone, choose (A).

Example: Bert and him went to the store to buy boots in preparation for the approaching storm.

(A) Bert and him went

(B) Bert and he went

(C) Bert and he had gone

(D) Bert and him had gone

(E) Bert and himself went

The correct answer is (B).

1. When they had heard about an Etruscan chariot on display at the Metropolitan Museum of Art, the citizens of the Italian town where the chariot was unearthed immediately claimed ownership.

(A) When they had heard

(B) When heard

(C) Hearing

(D) To hear

(E) With hearing

2. Amy Tan, whose novels explore the lives of Asian Americans, included elements of Chinese culture and history in her work.

(A) explore the lives of Asian Americans, included

(B) explore the lives of Asian Americans, had included

(C) explore the lives of Asian Americans, including

(D) exploring the lives of Asian Americans, included

(E) explore the lives of Asian Americans, includes

3. No one disputes his patriotism, nor can anyone challenge his integrity.

(A) patriotism, nor can anyone

(B) patriotism; nor can anyone

(C) patriotism, also no one can

(D) patriotism, and can anyone

(E) patriotism, with anyone can

4. Many public works programs of the Depression era were intended in creating jobs for the unemployed.

(A) were intended in creating

(B) were intended to create

(C) intended in creating

(D) with the intention of creating

(E) they were intended to create

5. Ancient Egyptian scribes sat cross-legged and wrote on “desks,” with them being their cloth kilts stretched tightly across their knees.

(A) with them being their

(B) their

(C) with their being their

(D) they were their

(E) which were their being

6. Construction projects which appear to start slowly, with months of work going into preparation of the site and foundation, before the skeleton of the building rises quickly.

(A) which appear to start slowly, with months of work going

(B) which appear to start slowly, have months of work going

(C) appear to start slowly, with months of work going

(D) that appear to start slowly, with months of work going

(E) which appear to start slowly, and months of work go

7. The best applicant for a position in technical services is good at detail, calm during interactions with customers, and knows about the devices a company sells.

(A) is good at detail, calm during interactions with customers, and knows

(B) is good at detail and calm during interactions with customers, while also knowing

(C) is good at detail, calming customers when they interact, and knows

(D) is good at detail, remains calm during interactions with customers, and knows

(E) is good at detail, calm during interactions with customers, and they know

8. Whether genetically engineered crops are a benefit or a danger, it is a matter of controversy.

(A) Whether genetically engineered crops are a benefit or a danger, it is a matter of controversy.

(B) Whether genetically engineered crops are a benefit or a danger is a matter of controversy.

(C) If genetically engineered crops are a benefit or a danger, is a matter of controversy.

(D) Genetically engineered crops are a benefit or a danger, and people think it is a matter of controversy.

(E) Controversially, genetically engineered crops are a benefit or a danger to many people.

9. Having learned Spanish and English as a child, Eleanor is fluent in both languages.

(A) Having learned Spanish and English as a child

(B) Learning Spanish and English as a child

(C) As a child, she learned Spanish and English

(D) Learned as a child, Spanish and English are languages and

(E) While she was learning Spanish and English as a child

10. The philosopher was so intent on making her argument, and she was walking into a wall of the coffee shop.

(A) argument, and she was walking

(B) argument, and walked

(C) argument, and she walked

(D) argument, walking

(E) argument that she walked

11. Seattle’s Space Needle is not only a symbol of the city but it also attracts tourists because of its unparalleled view.

(A) a symbol of the city but it also attracts tourists

(B) a symbol of the city attracting tourists

(C) a symbol of the city but also a tourist attraction

(D) a symbol of the city and it also attracts tourists

(E) a symbol of the city that also attracts tourists

12. After viewing the elephants, lions, and tigers, the sea lions are a real treat.

(A) After viewing the elephants, lions, and tigers, the sea lions are a real treat.

(B) After having viewed the elephants, lions, and tigers, the sea lions are a real treat.

(C) The elephants, lions, and tigers having viewed, the sea lions are real treat.

(D) If a person views the elephants, lions, and tigers, the sea lions are a real treat to them.

(E) After viewing the elephants, lions, and tigers, you’ll find that the sea lions are a real treat.

13. All over the park are thousands of trees, the variety including exotic species and the more common domestic oaks and maples.

(A) the variety including exotic species and the more common domestic oaks and maples

(B) and the variety includes exotic species and the more common domestic oaks and maples

(C) including exotic species and the more common domestic oaks and maples

(D) which has variety that includes exotic species and the more common domestic oaks and maples

(E) exotic species and the more common domestic oaks and maples are the variety there

14. Although painted wooden statues are popular with tourists, most artists in that area have long since moved on to other media.

(A) Although painted wooden statues are popular with tourists,

(B) Painted wooden statues are popular with tourists, and

(C) Although painted wooden statues are popular with tourists, but

(D) Painted wooden statues are popular with tourists, where

(E) Although painted wooden statues being popular with tourists,