Cracking the SAT

Part VII

SAT Practice Tests and Explanations

The best way to learn our techniques for cracking the SAT is to practice them. The following practice tests will give you a chance to do that. The additional practice tests on our website will provide even more practice.

These practice tests were designed to be as much like a real SAT as possible. The tests in this book contain three Critical Reading sections, three Math sections, three Writing sections (one 25-minute Grammar/Writing Skills section, one 10-minute Grammar/Writing Skills section, and one Essay section), and one Experimental section. Our questions test the same concepts that are tested on real SATs.

Keep Working

It is difficult to tell if a
section is experimental,
so you should treat all
of the sections as if they
count toward your score.

Because one of the sections in each practice test is experimental, none of the questions in it will count toward your final score. The actual SAT will have an Experimental section—critical reading, math, or writing—that ETS now euphemistically terms an “equating section.”

When you take a practice test, you should try to take it under conditions that are as much like real testing conditions as possible. Take it in a room where you won’t be disturbed, and have someone else time you. (It’s too easy if you time yourself.) You can give yourself a brief break halfway through, but don’t stop for longer than five minutes or so. To put yourself in a proper frame of mind, you might take it on a weekend morning. One more thing: Don’t use scrap paper; you will not have any when you take the real SAT.

After taking our tests, you’ll have a very good idea of what taking the real SAT will be like. In fact, we’ve found that students’ scores on The Princeton Review’s practice tests correspond very closely to the scores they earn on real SATs.

The answers to the questions on the tests in this book and a scoring guide can be found beginning on this page, this page, this page, and this page. The answer sheets are in the back of the book.

If you have any questions about the practice tests, the SAT, ETS, or The Princeton Review, give us a call, toll-free, at 1-800-2Review.

The following practice tests were written by the authors of this book and are not actual SATs. The directions and format were used by permission of Educational Testing Service. This permission does not constitute review or endorsement by Educational Testing Service or College Board of this publication as a whole or of any sample questions or testing information it may contain.

This book includes three practice tests. You can figure out your score on each of these tests with the same formula used by the College Board:


# of questions you get correct – (# of questions you get incorrect ÷ 4) = raw score


The College Board then takes your raw score, along with the raw score of every other test taker in the country, and figures out a curve. Finally, it assigns each raw score to a number on a scale from 200 to 800. This is your scaled score.

NOTE: Each practice test contains an unidentified, unscored section that simulates the Experimental section on the real SAT. Questions from these sections are NOT included when calculating your raw or scaled scores.

To figure out your scaled score for each subject, use the scoring worksheet that follows each SAT practice test. Let’s look at the subjects one at a time:

Writing

Step One

Count up the number of your correct answers for the two multiple-choice Writing sections. This is the number that goes in the first box.

Step Two

Count up the number of your incorrect answers for the multiple-choice Writing sections. Divide this number by 4, and place this number in the second box.

Step Three

Subtract the second number from the first. This is your Grammar raw score. This is the number that goes in the third box.

Step Four

Look up the number from the third box in the Writing Multiple-Choice Subscore Conversion Table. This is your Grammar scaled subscore.

Step Five

The essay is scored on a scale from 2–12. It is based upon the score that two graders give you, each on a scale from 1–6. Be sure to register at PrincetonReview.com/cracking to gain access to our LiveGrader™ Service. Your essay can be scored by our graders there. Take your 2–12 grade and double it so that it is from 4–24. This is the number that goes in the fourth box.

Step Six

Add the fourth box to the third. This is your raw score. This number goes in the fifth box.

Step Seven

Look up the number from the fifth box in the SAT Score Conversion Table. This is your scaled score.

Critical Reading

Step One

Count up the number of your correct answers for the three Critical Reading sections of the test. This is the number that goes in the first box.

Step Two

Count up the number of your incorrect answers for the three Critical Reading sections of the test. Divide this number by 4. This is the number that goes in the second box.

Step Three

Subtract the second number from the first. This is your raw score. This is the number that goes in the third box.

Step Four

Look up the number from the third box in the SAT Score Conversion Table. This is your scaled score.

Math

Step One

Count up the number of correct grid-in answers. This is the number that goes in the first box.

Step Two

Count up the number of your correct answers for the multiple-choice questions in the three Math sections of the test. This is the number that goes in the second box.

Step Three

Count up the number of your incorrect answers for the multiple-choice questions in the three Math sections of the test. Do NOT include any grid-in questions you may have answered incorrectly. Divide this number by 4 and place this number in the third box.

Step Four

Subtract the third number from the second, then add the first number. This is your raw score. This is the number that goes in the fourth box.

Step Five

Look up the number from the fourth box in the SAT Score Conversion Table. This is your scaled score.

Chapter 19

Practice Test 1



(Click here to download a PDF of Practice Test 1)

SECTION 1
ESSAY
Time — 25 minutes


Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to write your essay.


The essay gives you an opportunity to show how effectively you can develop and express ideas. You should, therefore, take care to develop your point of view, present your ideas logically and clearly, and use language precisely.

Your essay must be written on the lines provided on your answer sheet—you will receive no other paper on which to write. You will have enough space if you write on every line, avoid wide margins, and keep your handwriting to a reasonable size. Remember that people who are not familiar with your handwriting will read what you write. Try to write or print so that what you are writing is legible to those readers.

You have twenty-five minutes to write an essay on the topic assigned below. DO NOT WRITE ON ANOTHER TOPIC. AN OFF-TOPIC ESSAY WILL RECEIVE A SCORE OF ZERO.


Think carefully about the issue presented in the following excerpt and the assignment below.


No great man lives in vain. The history of the world is but the biography of great men.

Adapted from Thomas Carlyle, “The Hero as Divinity”

In historic events, the so-called great men are labels giving names to events, and like labels they have but the smallest connection with the event itself.

Adapted from Leo Tolstoy, War and Peace


Assignment: Can the daily actions of average people have a significant impact on the course of history? Plan and write an essay in which you develop your point of view on this issue. Support your position with reasoning and examples taken from your reading, studies, experience, or observations.


DO NOT WRITE YOUR ESSAY IN YOUR TEST BOOK. You will receive credit only for what you write on your answer sheet.

BEGIN WRITING YOUR ESSAY ON THIS PAGE OF THE ANSWER SHEET
(FOUND AT THE BACK OF THE BOOK).

S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

SECTION 2
Time — 25 minutes
20 Questions


Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.



Directions: For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. You may use any available space for scratchwork.


  1. Andrea subscribed to four publications that cost $12.90, $16.00, $18.00, and $21.90 per year, respectively. If she made an initial payment of one-half of the total yearly subscription cost, and paid the rest in four equal monthly payments, how much was each of the four monthly payments?

(A)     $8.60

(B)     $9.20

(C)     $9.45

(D)   $17.20

(E)   $34.40


  2. If , what is the value of x ?

(A)   −

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   0

(E)   2


  3. A survey of Town X found an average (arithmetic mean) of 3.2 persons per household and a mean of 1.2 televisions per household. If 48,000 people live in Town X, how many televisions are in Town X ?

(A)   15,000

(B)   16,000

(C)   18,000

(D)   40,000

(E)   57,600


      If I do not have any flour, I am not able to make cookies.

  4. If the statement above is true, which of the following statements must be true?

(A)   If I did not make cookies, I must not have had flour.

(B)   If I made cookies, I must have had flour.

(C)   If I have flour, I must be able to make cookies.

(D)   If I was able to make cookies, I must not have had any flour.

(E)   If I am not able to make cookies, I must not have any flour.


  5. Let the function f be defined such that f(x) = x2 − c, where c is a constant. If f(−2) = 6, what is the value of c ?

(A)   −10

(B)   −2

(C)   0

(D)   2

(E)   6


  6. If 9b = 81, then =

(A)       9

(B)     27

(C)     81

(D)   243

(E)   729


  7. What is the diameter of a circle with a circumference of 5 ?

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   5

(D)   5π

(E)   10π


  8. If the product of (1 + 2), (2 + 3), and (3 + 4) is equal to one-half the sum of 20 and x, what is the value of x ?

(A)        10

(B)        85

(C)      105

(D)      190

(E)   1,210


  9. If = 22, then x =

(A)     1

(B)     2

(C)     4

(D)     8

(E)   16


10. According to the table above, x + y =

(A)   $32,000

(B)   $48,000

(C)   $60,000

(D)   $68,000

(E)   $80,000


Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

11. If AB > CD, which of the following must be true?

    I. AB > BC

   II. AC > BD

  III.AC > CD

(A)   I only

(B)   II only

(C)   III only

(D)   II and III only

(E)   I, II, and III


12. If f(x) = , what is the value of f(1) ?

(A)   −2

(B)   −1

(C)   1

(D)   2

(E)   3


13. A researcher found that the number of bacteria in a certain sample doubles every hour. If there were 6 bacteria in the sample at the start of the experiment, how many bacteria were there after 9 hours?

(A)        54

(B)      512

(C)   1,536

(D)   3,072

(E)   6,144


14. If f(x) = x2 + 2, which of the following could be a value of f(x) ?

(A)   −2

(B)   −1

(C)    0

(D)    1

(E)    2


15. How many numbers from 1 to 200 inclusive are equal to the cube of an integer?

(A)   One

(B)   Two

(C)   Three

(D)   Four

(E)   Five


16. If the perimeter of rectangle ABCD is equal to p, and x = y, what is the value of y in terms of p ?

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

(E)   

17. A basketball team had a ratio of wins to losses of 3:1. After the team won six games in a row, its ratio of wins to losses became 5:1. How many games had the team won before winning six games in a row?

(A)     3

(B)     6

(C)     9

(D)   15

(E)   24


18. In rectangle PQRS above, what is a + b in terms of x ?

(A)   90 + x

(B)   90 – x

(C)   180 + x

(D)   270 – x

(E)   360 – x


19. What is the area of square ABCD ?

(A)   25

(B)   18

(C)   26

(D)   25 +

(E)   36


20. A square is inscribed in a circle with radius r. What is the probability that a randomly selected point within the circle will NOT be within the square?

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

(E)   

S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

SECTION 3
Time — 25 minutes
24 Questions


Turn to Section 3 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.



Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.


  1. To prevent household fires, all flammable liquids, oily rags, and other ------- materials should be properly disposed of.

(A)   combustible

(B)   unctuous

(C)   restricted

(D)   diluted

(E)   extinguishable

  2. Mark was intent on maintaining his status as first in his class; because even the smallest mistakes infuriated him, he reviewed all his papers ------- before submitting them to his teacher.

(A)   explicitly

(B)   hastily

(C)   honestly

(D)   unconsciously

(E)   meticulously

  3. Because Jenkins neither ------- nor defends either side in the labor dispute, both parties admire his journalistic -------.

(A)   criticizes . . vitality

(B)   attacks . . neutrality

(C)   confronts . . aptitude

(D)   dismisses . . flair

(E)   protects . . integrity

  4. It is ironic that the ------- insights of the great thinkers are voiced so often that they have become mere -------.

(A)   original . . clichés

(B)   banal . . beliefs

(C)   dubious . . habits

(D)   philosophical . . questions

(E)   abstract . . assessments

  5. Some anthropologists claim that a few apes have been taught to communicate using rudimentary sign language, but skeptics argue that the apes are only ------- their trainers.

(A)   emulating

(B)   condoning

(C)   instructing

(D)   acknowledging

(E)   belaboring

  6. Most people imagine organ fugues to be ------- and -------, due to their technical difficulty and challenging counterpoint.

(A)   diminutive . . uplifting

(B)   harmonious . . petrifying

(C)   daunting . . esoteric

(D)   cacophonous . . enchanting

(E)   inscrutable . . classical

  7. Since many disadvantaged individuals view their situations as ------- as well as intolerable, their attitudes can best be described as -------.

(A)   squalid . . obscure

(B)   unpleasant . . bellicose

(C)   acute . . sanguine

(D)   inalterable . . resigned

(E)   political . . perplexed

  8. Only when one actually visits the ancient ruins of marvelous bygone civilizations does one truly appreciate the sad ------- of human greatness.

(A)   perspicacity

(B)   magnitude

(C)   artistry

(D)   transience

(E)   quiescence


Directions: Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in each passage and in any introductory material that may be provided.


Questions 9–10 are based on the following passage.

  9. The question posed by the author in lines 4–5 serves to

(A)   criticize traditional therapies for writer’s block

(B)   reflect on the information provided earlier in the passage

(C)   transition into a new perspective on writer’s block

(D)   introduce more information on neurological disorders

(E)   highlight the contrast between the two problems

10. The author’s primary purpose in the passage is to

(A)   compare two problems faced by writers

(B)   present a possible cause of writer’s block

(C)   provide detailed information about the temporal lobe

(D)   question current solutions to writing problems

(E)   describe the side effects of epilepsy

Questions 11–12 are based on the following passage.

11. It can be most reasonably inferred that the Romans

(A)   conquered France because of its islands

(B)   preferred circular architectural forms

(C)   did not create all of Paris’ arrondissements

(D)   lost control of Paris after annexing its suburbs

(E)   valued safety more than current inhabitants of Paris

12. According to the passage, which of the following has most influenced the layout of Paris?

(A)   The decreasing population of the city

(B)   The ritual importance of the spiral symbol

(C)   A desire to defend inhabited space

(D)   Roman experiments in solid geometry

(E)   The desire to improve upon Roman architectural styles

Questions 13–24 are based on the following passage.

The following passage is an excerpt from nineteenth-century British explorer David Livingston’s memoirs of his journeys to Africa.

13. The passage provides the most information about which aspect of Livingston’s journey?

(A)   The people he met

(B)   The colors of the surrounding environment

(C)   The time he spent in Africa

(D)   The river system on which he traveled

(E)   The type of food available

14. The primary function of the first paragraph is to

(A)   give the reader a glimpse into Livingston’s private life

(B)   establish Livingston’s personal characteristics and skills as an explorer

(C)   provide a brief prelude to the later details in the passage

(D)   emphasize the welcoming nature of Cape Town’s citizens

(E)   explain why Livingston was in Africa

15. According to the passage, Livingston’s “object” (line 8) was to

(A)   map the course of the river and its tributaries

(B)   attempt to make contact with the Portuguese settlers that live along it

(C)   find a safe route along the coast of Africa

(D)   determine whether the waterway could be used for trade

(E)   be the first to survey a new land

16. As used in the passage, the word “torrid” (line 20) most nearly means

(A)   pleasant

(B)   frightening

(C)   hurried

(D)   hidden

(E)   scorching

17. The passage lists which of the following as a factor in Livingston’s designation of Kongone as the “best” (line 27) entrance to the Zambesi for boat travel?

(A)   The ease with which a boat can travel on the river, regardless of the current or the wind direction

(B)   The abundant food, including antelope and buffalo, that can be found along the banks of the river

(C)   The lack of native inhabitants living near the river

(D)   The depth of the river is appropriate for a boat even at low tide

(E)   The beacon placed on Pearl Island

18. It may be inferred from the discussion of the bar in the Kongone River that

(A)   under certain wind conditions, a ship traveling over the bar would most likely pass safely

(B)   a beacon will soon be built on Pearl Island to help guide ships over the bar

(C)   if the wind comes from the east or south, the bar in the Kongone River will be smooth

(D)   of all the rivers in Africa, the Kongone is the best way of reaching the interior of Africa

(E)   ships should not attempt to travel the Kongone unless the wind is from the northeast

19. According to the passage, “a strong current” (line 39) on the Kongone

(A)   may, depending on the tide, increase the danger to a boat traveling along the river

(B)   will make the river impassable to most ships

(C)   increases the water level from two fathoms to twelve to fourteen feet

(D)   led de Gama to name the river the “Barra Catrina”

(E)   caused an immense amount of sand to form a promontory in the river

20. The third paragraph states that East Luabo offers which advantage to navigators?

(A)   Of the tributaries of the Zambesi, it is easily viewed when approaching from the west.

(B)   No Portuguese live within eighty miles of East Luabo.

(C)   Its bar is safe to boaters under most conditions.

(D)   East Luabo is more familiar to European navigators than the other mouths of the Zambesi.

(E)   It is the only tributary of the Zambesi that had previously been charted.

21. The author most likely mentions Vasco de Gama (line 49) in order to

(A)   indicate that other explorers have already charted the course of the river

(B)   refer to a previous navigator that Livingston admires

(C)   demonstrate a possible connection between Livingston’s expedition and that of a another navigator

(D)   explain why no Portuguese live within eighty miles of the river

(E)   reveal why there is a pillar dedicated to St. Raphael at the mouth of the river

22. The mention of the natives in the final paragraph suggests that

(A)   most of the inhabitants of Africa do not have a favorable view of Livingston

(B)   the people Livingston encountered had little interest in making contact with him

(C)   there were not many people living along the rivers that Livingston explored

(D)   the Portuguese had enslaved a great many of the native inhabitants of Africa

(E)   the native inhabitants were beginning their hunt of venison

23. The tone of the passage may best be described as

(A)   disinterested

(B)   enthusiastic

(C)   passionate

(D)   personally revealing

(E)   objective

24. The author would most likely agree with which one of the following?

(A)   Livingston was the most important explorer of Africa in the 1850s.

(B)   Some people may have escaped a life of slavery.

(C)   The natives Livingston encountered recognized him from Cape Town.

(D)   Livingston’s men preferred to eat antelope over buffalo.

(E)   Livingston’s exploratory mission was less successful than he had hoped.

S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

SECTION 4
Time — 25 minutes
20 Questions


Turn to Section 4 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.



Directions: For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. You may use any available space for scratchwork.


  1. If 2 + a = 2 – a, what is the value of a ?

(A)   –1

(B)    0

(C)    1

(D)    2

(E)    4


  2. If AC = 4, what is the area of ABC above?

(A)   

(B)   2

(C)   

(D)   4

(E)   8


  3. In the figure above, the perimeter of square A is the perimeter of square B, and the perimeter of square B is the perimeter of square C. If the area of square A is 16, what is the area of square C ?

(A)   24

(B)   36

(C)   64

(D)   72

(E)   81


  4. A bakery uses a special flour mixture that contains corn, wheat, and rye in the ratio of 3:5:2. If a bag of the mixture contains 5 pounds of rye, how many pounds of wheat does it contain?

(A)     2

(B)     5

(C)     7.5

(D)   10

(E)   12.5


  5. If and are diameters with lengths of 12, what is the area of the shaded region?

(A)   36

(B)   30

(C)   18

(D)   12

(E)     9


  6. If the product of x and y is 76, and x is twice the square of y, which of the following pairs of equations could be used to determine the values of x and y ?

(A)   xy = 76

x = 2y2

(B)   xy = 76

x = (2y)2

(C)   x + y = 76

x = 4y2

(D)   x + y = 76

x = 4y

(E)   xy = 76

x = 2y


  7. A coffee shop noticed that the outside temperature affected the number of customers who came to the shop that day, as shown in the table above. Which of the following graphs best represents the relationship between the outside temperature and the number of customers, as indicated by the table?

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

(E)   


  8. If c is positive, what percent of 3c is 9 ?

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   3%

(E)   


D (–6, 3)

E (–1, –1)

F (–1, 3)

  9. The coordinates of points D, E, and F in the xy-plane are given above. What is the perimeter of ∆DEF ?

(A)   12

(B)   20

(C)   9 + (approximately 13.12)

(D)   9 + (approximately 15.40)

(E)    (approximately 12.25)


10. Fifteen percent of the coins in a piggy bank are nickels and five percent are dimes. If there are 220 coins in the bank, how many are not nickels or dimes?

(A)     80

(B)   176

(C)   180

(D)   187

(E)   200


11. At the beginning of 1999, the population of Rockville was 204,000 and the population of Springfield was 216,000. If the population of each city increased by exactly 20% in 1999, how many more people lived in Springfield than in Rockville at the end of 1999 ?

(A)     2,400

(B)   10,000

(C)   12,000

(D)   14,400

(E)   43,200


12. If x + y = z and x = y, then all of the following are true EXCEPT

(A)   2x + 2y = 2z

(B)   xy = 0

(C)   xz = yz

(D)   x =

(E)   zy = 2x


13. In a list of seven integers, 13 is the lowest member, 37 is the highest member, the mean is 23, the median is 24, and the mode is 18. If the numbers 8 and 43 are then included in the list, which of the following will change?

    I. The mean

   II. The median

  III. The mode

(A)   I only

(B)   I and II only

(C)   I and III only

(D)   II and III only

(E)   I, II, and III


14. If |x| ≠ 0, which of the following statements must be true?

(A)   x is positive.

(B)   2x is positive.

(C)    is positive.

(D)   x2 is positive.

(E)   x3 is positive.


15. Rock climbing routes are rated on a numbered scale with the highest number representing the most difficult route. Sally tried a range of shoe sizes on each of several routes of varying difficulty and found that when she wore smaller shoes, she could climb routes of greater difficulty. If Drepresents the difficulty rating of a route Sally successfully climbed and s represents the size of the shoes she wore on such a route, then which of the following could express D as a function of s ?

(A)   D(s) = s2

(B)   D(s) =

(C)   D(s) = 4s

(D)   D(s) = s − 3.5

(E)   D(s) =


16. If a2b = 122, and b is an odd integer, then a could be divisible by all of the following EXCEPT

(A)     3

(B)     4

(C)     6

(D)     9

(E)   12


17. An equilateral triangle has sides of length x. If a second equillateral triangle has sides of length 2x, what is the ratio of the area of the first triangle to the area of the second?

(A)   1 : 16

(B)    : 2

(C)   1 : 2

(D)   1 : 4

(E)   1 :


Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

18. In the figure above, || . If the length of is 3, what is the length of ?

(A)   3

(B)   4

(C)   5

(D)   3

(E)   It cannot be determined from the information given.


19. If (a − 5)(b + 5) < 0, then which of the following must be true?

(A)   a < 5

(B)   aπ − 5

(C)   bπ − 5

(D)   b > –5

(E)   a > 5


20. The value of the nth term of a sequence is given by the expression a3n – 3. If the second term of the sequence is 61, which of the following could be the value of a ?

    I. –2

   II.  2

  III.  4

(A)   I only

(B)   II only

(C)   III only

(D)   I and II only

(E)   II and III only

S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

SECTION 5
Time — 25 minutes
35 Questions


Turn to Section 5 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.



Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.


  1. Laura Southworth, a children’s author who is beginning to attract the notice of critics and librarians alike, wrote and illustrated her first story Tika and she was only seven years old then.

(A)   and she was only seven years old then

(B)   at age seven years old only

(C)   when she was only seven years old

(D)   upon the reaching of only seven years

(E)   at the time when she was only seven

  2. Many building technologies are changing significantly in the last two thousand years, but today’s concrete is still similar to the concrete of Roman times.

(A)   are changing

(B)   have changed

(C)   had changed

(D)   are going to change

(E)   change

  3. The video class that meets on Thursdays makes use of the innovative software MAYA, which enables students to design and build a virtual stage set, a home, or even a city in three dimensions.

(A)   makes use of the innovative software MAYA, which enables students to design and build

(B)   using the innovative software MAYA and enabling students to design and build

(C)   besides making use of the innovative software MAYA, enables students to design and build

(D)   because it makes use of the innovative software MAYA, it enables students to design and build

(E)   not only making use of the innovative software MAYA, but also enabling students in the design and building of

  4. The ancient belief of all matter being in continuous motion seems borne out by modern discoveries about atomic structure.

(A)   of all matter being in continuous motion

(B)   is that all matter is in continuous motion

(C)   which is that all matter is in continuous motion

(D)   that all matter is in continuous motion

(E)   of all matter that is in continuous motion

  5. If Marcel Proust’s memory had not been felicitously stirred by the taste of a madeleine, he might never have been moved to write Remembrance of Things Past.

(A)   had not been felicitously stirred by the taste of a madeleine

(B)   had not been stirred by means of the felicitous taste of a madeleine

(C)   were not to be felicitously stirred by the taste of a madeleine

(D)   were not to be stirred by the taste of a felicitous madeleine

(E)   should not be stirred by the felicitous taste of a madeleine

  6. The game hadn’t ended yet, but Sarin knows that his chances of winning are slipping away by the second and he needs a miracle.

(A)   knows that his chances of winning are slipping away by the second and he needs a miracle

(B)   knew that he had no chance of winning and in a second he would need a miracle

(C)   knows that winning is a long shot and that he needs a miracle

(D)   knew that his chances to win were slipping away by the second and a miracle is what he needed

(E)   knew that his chances of winning were slipping away by the second and he needed a miracle

  7. When preparing to write a research paper, you should gather information from books, periodicals, and the Internet, and your documenting of sources should be carefully done.

(A)   and your documenting of sources should be carefully done

(B)   and document your sources carefully

(C)   and you should document your careful sources

(D)   because your sources need to be documented carefully

(E)   yet you need to carefully document your sources

  8. Because it has rich limestone similar to the Rhine Valley , Pennsylvania’s Lehigh Valley attracted many German settlers who had brought traditional farming methods with them from home.

(A)   the Rhine Valley

(B)   the Rhine Valley did

(C)   it has the Rhine Valley

(D)   the Rhine Valleys

(E)   that of the Rhine Valley

  9. Catherine II of Russia died at 67, and her reputation still surviving as one of the forward-looking, enlightened monarchs of Europe.

(A)   67, and her reputation still surviving as one of the forward-looking, enlightened monarchs of Europe

(B)   67, however her reputation is surviving as one of the forward-looking, enlightened monarchs of Europe

(C)   67, her reputation as one of the forward-looking, enlightened monarchs of Europe still surviving

(D)   67; her reputation as one of the forward-looking, enlightened monarchs of Europe still survives

(E)   67; and her reputation as being one of the more forward-looking, enlightened monarchs of Europe will always survive

10. You may not realize that it is still possible to pick one’s own fruit from an orchard ; the supermarket is not the only place where fruit is available today.

(A)   You may not realize that it is still possible to pick one’s own fruit from an orchard

(B)   One may not realize that it is still possible to pick your own fruit from an orchard

(C)   Picking your own fruit from the orchard

(D)   Although many don’t realize it, picking fruit from the orchard is still an option

(E)   Picking your own fruit from the orchard can be a possibility

11. The Bauhaus school of design, craft, and architecture held many theories in common with the De Stijl movement; however, it instigated a paradigm shift in design.

(A)   however, it instigated a paradigm shift in design

(B)   however, they instigated a paradigm shift in design

(C)   however, the Bauhaus school instigated a paradigm shift in design

(D)   and the Bauhaus school instigated a paradigm shift in design

(E)   and a paradigm shift was instigated by the Bauhaus school

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.


Directions: The following passage is an early draft of an essay. Some parts of the passage need to be rewritten.

Read the passage and select the best answers for the questions that follow. Some questions are about particular sentences or parts of sentences and ask you to improve sentence structure or word choice. Other questions ask you to consider organization and development. In choosing answers, follow the requirements of standard written English.


Questions 30–35 are based on the following passage.

(1) Many laws seem to be created for the purpose of protecting people from themselves. (2) Some examples are age limits for off-road vehicles, seatbelt requirements for cars, and wearing a helmet when riding a motorcycle. (3) Opponents of these laws feel that their rights are being restricted.(4) If it doesn’t hurt anyone else, why should there be a law? (5) But if they become injured, it can raise insurance rates for everyone.

(6) In another context, consider people putting aside money for their retirement. (7) Suppose they work for a fast-growing company, the hot new stock pick. (8) Many employees invest heavily in the stock. (9) The stock price plummets, their savings disappear.

(10) Laws preventing people from having too much company stock in their retirement accounts could protect them from financial disaster. (11) It isn’t easy to find the proper balance between individual rights and the common good. (12) Some people will think that the new law goes too far.(13) Others complaining that it doesn’t go far enough. (14) If it is too much, we can stand up and fight it. (15) Although we may not agree with every law, some minor inconveniences are part of living in our society.

30. Which of the following is the best revision of the underlined portion of sentence 1 (reproduced below)?

Many laws seem to be created for the purpose of protecting people from themselves.

(A)   (as it is now)

(B)   in order to protect people

(C)   as a result of protecting people

(D)   so that people will have protection

(E)   that let people be protected

31. What is the best way to deal with sentence 6?

(A)   Replace “another context” with “a similar vein.”

(B)   Replace the word “context” with “way.”

(C)   Insert the words “you could” before “consider.”

(D)   Delete the word “another.”

(E)   Omit the entire sentence.

32. In which of the following ways could sentences 8 and 9 (reproduced below) best be written?

Many employees invest heavily in the stock. The stock price plummets, their savings disappear.

(A)   (As they are now)

(B)   Employees can invest heavily in the stock; then the stock price plummets, their savings will disappear.

(C)   After the employees invest heavily in the stock, the plummeting stock price causes their savings to disappear.

(D)   When employees invest heavily in the stock, it is then that the stock price can plummet and their savings disappear.

(E)   If employees invest heavily in the stock and the stock price plummets, their savings will disappear.

33. What should be done with sentence 10?

(A)   Insert “On the other hand” at the beginning.

(B)   Switch it with sentence 7.

(C)   Move it to the end of the second paragraph.

(D)   Change “their” to “his.”

(E)   Change “accounts” to “account.”

34. Which of the following most effectively revises the underlined portions of sentences 12 and 13 (reproduced below) in order to combine the sentences?

Some people will think that the new law goes too far. Others complaining that it doesn’t go far enough.

(A)   far: some others complaining

(B)   far, others complain

(C)   far; others are complaining

(D)   far; others have complained

(E)   far, while others will complain

35. Which of the following sentences could best be deleted without detracting from the flow of the passage?

(A)   Sentence 3

(B)   Sentence 7

(C)   Sentence 11

(D)   Sentence 14

(E)   Sentence 15

S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

SECTION 6
Time — 25 minutes
18 Questions


Turn to Section 6 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.



Directions: For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. You may use any available space for scratchwork.


  1. When k is subtracted from 10, and the difference is divided by 2, the result is 3. What is the value of k ?

(A)     3

(B)     4

(C)     6

(D)   10

(E)   16


  2. In the figure above, what is the value of a + b + c ?

(A)   180

(B)   240

(C)   270

(D)   360

(E)   It cannot be determined from the information given.


  3. Steve ran a 12-mile race at an average speed of 8 miles per hour. If Adam ran the same race at an average speed of 6 miles per hour, how many minutes longer did Adam take to complete the race than did Steve?

(A)     9

(B)   12

(C)   16

(D)   24

(E)   30


  4. Which of the following is equivalent to • 6a?

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   8a2

(E)   24a2


  5. In the figure above, side of ΔABC contains which of the following points?

(A)   (3, 2)

(B)   (3, 5)

(C)   (4, 6)

(D)   (4, 10)

(E)   (6, 8)


  6. A college student bought 11 books for fall classes. If the cost of his anatomy textbook was three times the mean cost of the other 10 books, then the cost of the anatomy textbook was what fraction of the total amount he paid for the 11 books?

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

(E)   


Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

  7. In parallelogram ABCD above, AC = 3 and AD = 5. What is the area of ABCD ?

(A)   12

(B)   15

(C)   18

(D)   20

(E)   It cannot be determined from the information given.


  8. The recipe for a pie recommends that the pie be baked for at least 50 minutes, but not more than 60 minutes. If b is the number of minutes a pie, baked within the recommended time, is baked, which of the following represents all possible values of b?

(A)   | b − 55 | = 5

(B)   | b + 55 | < 5

(C)   | b + 55 | > 5

(D)   | b − 55 | < 5

(E)   | b − 55 | > 5

  9. If = 6, what is the value of x ?


10. When n is divided by 5, the remainder is 4. When n is divided by 4, the remainder is 3. If 0 < n < 100, what is one possible value of n ?


11. If l1 is parallel to l2 in the figure above, what is the value of y ?


12. If x2 = 16 and y2 = 4, what is the greatest possible value of (x – y)2 ?


13. There are 250 students in 10th grade at Northgate High School. All 10th graders must take French or Spanish, but not both. If the ratio of males to females in 10th grade is 2 to 3, and 80 of the 100 French students are male, how many female students take Spanish?


14. On the number line above, j, k, l, m, and n are coordinates of the indicated points. What is the value of ?


15. Hanna is arranging tools in a toolbox. She has one hammer, one wrench, one screwdriver, one tape measure, and one staple gun to place in 5 empty spots in her toolbox. If all of the tools will be placed in a spot, one tool in each spot, and the hammer and screwdriver fit only in the first 2 spots, how many different ways can she arrange the tools in the spots?


16. In the figure above, AB is the arc of the circle with center O. Point A lies on the graph of y = x2 – b, where b is a constant. If the area of shaded region AOB is π, then what is the value of b ?


17. is perpendicular to and and bisect each other at point X. If AB = 8 and CD = 10, what is the length of ?


18. A researcher found that the amount of sleep that she allowed her mice to get was inversely proportional to the number of errors the mice made, on average, in a maze test. If mice that got 2 hours of sleep made 3 errors in the maze test, how many errors, on average, do mice with 5 hours of sleep make?

S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

SECTION 7
Time — 25 minutes
24 Questions


Turn to Section 7 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.



Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.


  1. If it is true that morality cannot exist without religion, then does not the erosion of religion herald the ------- of morality?

(A)   regulation

(B)   basis

(C)   belief

(D)   collapse

(E)   value

  2. Shaken by two decades of virtual anarchy, the majority of people were ready to buy ------- at any price.

(A)   stability

(B)   emancipation

(C)   prosperity

(D)   liberty

(E)   enfranchisement

  3. Certain animal behaviors, such as mating rituals, seem to be -------, and therefore ------- external factors such as climate changes, food supply, or the presence of other animals of the same species.

(A)   learned . . immune to

(B)   innate . . unaffected by

(C)   intricate . . beleaguered by

(D)   specific . . confused with

(E)   memorized . . controlled by

  4. The stoic former general led his civilian life as he had his military life, with simplicity and ------- dignity.

(A)   benevolent

(B)   informal

(C)   austere

(D)   aggressive

(E)   succinct

  5. Although bound to uphold the law, a judge is free to use his discretion to ------- the cruel severity of some criminal penalties.

(A)   mitigate

(B)   understand

(C)   condone

(D)   provoke

(E)   enforce


Directions: Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in each passage and in any introductory material that may be provided.


Questions 6–9 are based on the following passages.

Passage 1

Passage 2

  6. It can be inferred from Passage 1 that

(A)   theories of the Earth’s age evolved from the work of more than one scientist

(B)   there is general agreement on theories of geological evolution

(C)   geologists used biological evolution to disprove the theory of Uniformity

(D)   geology is a new, and therefore inexact, science

(E)   attempts to scientifically date the Earth began with Hutton’s work

  7. Passage 1 is unlike Passage 2 in that Passage 1

(A)   attempts to prove a theory while Passage 2 attempts to disprove it

(B)   introduces a theory while Passage 2 offers an example to contradict it

(C)   proves a new geological theory while Passage 2 offers a counterexample

(D)   contradicts an existing theory while Passage 2 proves one

(E)   criticizes a popular theory while Passage 2 defends it

  8. Which of the following statements about Geological Evolutional theory is supported by both passages?

(A)   Geological Evolutionary theory has not yet been proven to be true.

(B)   Geological Evolutionary theory cannot yet explain the placement of Paleozoic strata.

(C)   Geological Evolutionary theory is not yet old enough to be true.

(D)   Geological Evolutionary theory is a commonly observed phenomenon.

(E)   Geological Evolutionary theory is not as old as the theory of Uniformity.

  9. Passage 2 is best described as

(A)   a confirmation of a firmly established theory

(B)   an exception to a generally accepted truth

(C)   a catalog of the flaws of newly established theory

(D)   a discussion of an intuitively plausible hypothesis

(E)   a potential exception to an observable theory

Questions 10–15 are based on the following passage.

The following passage is an excerpt from a book by novelist Gregor von Rezzori.

10. Lines 14–23 are used by the author to demonstrate that

(A)   the author posed an imminent danger to others

(B)   the schools that the author attended were too difficult

(C)   the tactics used to make the author more obedient were failing

(D)   the author was often criticized by both his schoolmasters and classmates

(E)   the author’s academic career was nearing an end

11. In lines 16–17, the author implies that Styria

(A)   belongs to his people

(B)   is in Austria

(C)   does not belong to Austria

(D)   is not a lenient boarding school

(E)   belongs to Hungary rather than Austria

12. The word “ignominious” in line 17 means

(A)   dangerous

(B)   harsh

(C)   unappreciated

(D)   disreputable

(E)   discriminating

13. It can be inferred from the passage that the author’s parents were

(A)   frustrated by the author’s performance in school

(B)   oblivious to the author’s inability to do well in school

(C)   wealthy, making them insensitive to the needs of the poor

(D)   schoolmasters who believed in the strict disciplining of youth

(E)   living in Russia while their son lived in Bukovina

14. The passage indicates that the author regarded the aphorism mentioned in the last paragraph with

(A)   relief because it showed him that he would eventually feel better

(B)   dissatisfaction because he found it unrealistic

(C)   contempt because he saw it working for others

(D)   bemusement because of his immunity to it

(E)   sorrow because his faith in it nearly killed him

15. The passage as a whole suggests that the author felt

(A)   happy because he was separated from his parents

(B)   upset because he was unable to maintain good friendships

(C)   melancholy and unsettled in his environment

(D)   suicidal and desperate because of his living in Russia

(E)   hopeful because he’d soon be out of school

Questions 16–24 are based on the following passage.

The following passage, published in 1986, is from a book written by a zoologist.

16. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A)   show the enmity that exists between cats and dogs

(B)   advocate dogs as making better pets than cats

(C)   distinguish certain behaviors of dogs and cats

(D)   show the inferiority of dogs because of their dependent nature

(E)   emphasize the role that human society plays in the personalities of domestic pets

17. In line 15, the word “pseudoparents” means

(A)   part-time parents who are only partially involved with their young

(B)   individuals who act as parents of adults

(C)   parents who neglect their young

(D)   parents who have both the characteristics of humans and their pets

(E)   adoptive parents who aren’t related to their young

18. The author suggests that dogs and cats “differ” (line 18) in that, unlike dogs, cats

(A)   do not have complex social organizations

(B)   obey mainly because of their obedient nature

(C)   have a more creative nature

(D)   do not regard their owners as the leader of their social group

(E)   are not skilled hunters

19. It can be inferred from the second paragraph (lines 18–36) that the social structure of dogs is

(A)   flexible

(B)   hierarchical

(C)   abstract

(D)   male-dominated

(E)   somewhat exclusive

20. According to the passage, the domestic cat can be described as

(A)   a biped because it possesses the characteristics of animals with two feet

(B)   a pseudopet because it can’t really be tamed and will always retain its wild habits

(C)   a contradiction because although it lives comfortably with humans, it refuses to be dominated by them

(D)   untamed because it preserves its independence

(E)   dominant because although it plays the part of a pet, it acquires obedience from humans

21. The “ambitious Yuppie” mentioned in line 55 is an example of a person

(A)   who lacks the ability to be self-sufficient

(B)   who seeks group-oriented status

(C)   who is a stereotypical pet-owner

(D)   who has a weak personality

(E)   who cares little for cat lovers

22. The fifth paragraph (lines 59–69) indicates that human females

(A)   prefer the society of cats less than that of dogs

(B)   developed independent roles that didn’t require group behavior

(C)   had to gather food because they were not strong enough to hunt

(D)   are not good owners for the modern dog

(E)   were negatively affected by the division of labor of human societies

23. The author uses lines 70–73 (“The argument … positions.”) to

(A)   show that the argument stated in the passage is ultimately futile and thus not worth continuing

(B)   disclaim contradictions that are stated in the passage

(C)   qualify the generalizations used to make the author’s point

(D)   ensure that the reader doesn’t underestimate the crux of the passage

(E)   highlight a difference between individualism and dependency

24. The passage as a whole does all of the following EXCEPT

(A)   refer to findings

(B)   make parenthetical statements

(C)   quote a knowledgeable individual

(D)   restate an argument

(E)   make a generalization

S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

SECTION 8
Time — 20 minutes
16 Questions


Turn to Section 8 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.



Directions: For this section, solve each problem and decide which is the best of the choices given. Fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. You may use any available space for scratchwork.


  1. If 3x − 5 = 4, what is the value of 9x − 15 ?

(A)     3

(B)     4

(C)     9

(D)   12

(E)   15


  2. In Store X, which color costs the most per button?

(A)   Black

(B)   Blue

(C)   Brown

(D)   Orange

(E)   Red


  3. In the xy-coordinate plane, which of the following ordered pairs is a point on the line y = 2x − 6 ?

(A)   (6, 7)

(B)   (7, 7)

(C)   (7, 8)

(D)   (8, 7)

(E)   (8, 8)


  4. For which of the following values of x is the least?

(A)     1

(B)   –1

(C)   –2

(D)   –3

(E)   –4


  5. If (a + b)2 = 49, and ab = 10, which of the following represents the value of b in terms of a ?

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

(E)   


  6. If the area of square ABFE = 25, and the area of BCF = 10, what is the length of ?

(A)     7

(B)     8

(C)     9

(D)   10

(E)   14


  7. If x + 2y = 20, y + 2z = 9, and 2x + z = 22, what is the value of x + y + z ?

(A)   10

(B)   12

(C)   17

(D)   22

(E)   51


  8. If the sum of two numbers is 10, and one of these numbers is equal to the sum of 6 and twice the other number, what is the value of the larger number minus the smaller number?

(A)   2

(B)   5

(C)   6

(D)   7

(E)   8


  9. For a given year, a mayor has $45,000 allotted to spend on the sanitation department, the police department, and the fire department. If of his money goes to the sanitation department, and of the remaining money goes to the police department, how much does the mayor have left for the fire department?

(A)   $36,000

(B)   $24,000

(C)   $21,000

(D)   $12,000

(E)     $6,000


10. If the average measure of two angles in a parallelogram is y , what is the average degree measure of the other two angles?

(A)   180 – y

(B)   180 −

(C)   360 – 2y

(D)   360 + y

(E)   y


11. If m > 0 and b > 0, which of the following could be a graph of y = mx2 + b ?

(A)   

(B)   

(C)   

(D)   

(E)   


12. S is the set of all positive numbers n such that n < 100 and is an integer. What is the median value of the members of set S ?

(A)     5

(B)     5.5

(C)   25

(D)   50

(E)   99


13. Point K lies outside the circle with center C such that CK = 26. is tangent to the circle at point J, and the distance from J to K is 2 less than the distance from K to C. What is the circumference of the circle?

(A)   10π

(B)   15π

(C)   20π

(D)   22π

(E)   24π


14. On a map, 1 centimeter represents 6 kilometers. A square on the map with a perimeter of 16 centimeters represents a region with what area?

(A)        64 square kilometers

(B)        96 square kilometers

(C)      256 square kilometers

(D)      576 square kilometers

(E)   8,216 square kilometers


15. If 0.1% of m is equal to 10% of n, then m is what percent of 10n ?

(A)   

(B)          1%

(C)        10%

(D)      100%

(E)   1,000%

16. The graph of y = g(x) is shown in the figure above. If g(x) = ax2 + bx + c for constants a, b, and c, and if abc ≠ 0, then which of the following must be true?

(A)   ac > 1

(B)   c > 1

(C)   ac < 0

(D)   a > 0

(E)   ac > 0

S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

SECTION 9
Time — 20 minutes
19 Questions


Turn to Section 9 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.



Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.


  1. Max’s grandmother seems -------; she is frequently observed behaving in an unconventional manner.

(A)   ordinary

(B)   eccentric

(C)   chronological

(D)   sociable

(E)   industrious

  2. The antibiotic ointment was so effective on the infection in Molly’s swollen finger that after only one application, the finger was no longer -------.

(A)   compressed

(B)   deflated

(C)   distended

(D)   fractured

(E)   disintegrated

  3. Professor Cooligan told his class that since the Industrial Revolution, the global warming trend has been -------; human disregard for the environment precipitated many of the alterations in the earth’s climate zones.

(A)   inevitable

(B)   malevolent

(C)   reciprocal

(D)   stagnant

(E)   guileless

  4. After just one hour of study, Tyler unrealistically expected a ------- rise in his test scores, and was reluctant to work longer hours for steady, ------- score improvements.

(A)   repetitive . . swift

(B)   sudden . . interminable

(C)   trivial . . gradual

(D)   steep . . incremental

(E)   significant . . rapid

  5. When participating in a yoga class, Katarina attains a ------- state; the soothing music and soft lighting invoke a serenity that is otherwise lacking in her frenzied existence.

(A)   euphonious

(B)   perspicuous

(C)   placid

(D)   prolific

(E)   supple

  6. Dr. Schwartz’s lecture on art, while detailed and scholarly, focused ------- on the pre-modern; some students may have appreciated his specialized knowledge, but those with more ------- interests may have been disappointed.

(A)   literally . . medieval

(B)   completely . . antediluvian

(C)   prodigiously . . germane

(D)   voluminously . . creative

(E)   utterly . . eclectic


Directions: Each passage below is followed by questions based on its content. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in each passage and in any introductory material that may be provided.


Questions 7–19 are based on the following passages.

The two passages below discuss the causes of deviant behavior and strategies for deterring it. The first passage is taken from a discussion of the classical perspective on deviance, while Passage 2 recounts a more recent interpretation of behavior.

Passage 1

Passage 2

  7. The author of Passage 1 would most likely argue that the arrival of the Enlightenment in Europe shifted philosophers’ focus from

(A)   superstition to spirituality

(B)   demons to angels

(C)   criminals to law-abiding citizens

(D)   classicists to modernists

(E)   theology to intellectualism

  8. According to the “classical perspective” (line 16), deviant behavior is the result of

(A)   a criminal act

(B)   a demonic presence

(C)   a rational decision based on intellectual evaluation

(D)   a concept developed by philosophers

(E)   rationale that minimizes pleasure and maximizes pain

  9. In the third paragraph, classicists did not encourage harsh, autocratic punishments because

(A)   risks must outstrip potential profits from a heist

(B)   punishment can be meted out precisely and mathematically

(C)   the demonic, otherworldly influence on actions will prevail

(D)   the appropriate punishment must merely exceed the pain

(E)   deviant acts arise from a reasoned assessment of pleasure versus pain

10. In line 42 of Passage 2, “ascribe” most nearly means

(A)   reveal

(B)   attribute

(C)   describe

(D)   distinguish

(E)   explain

11. In lines 43–44 of Passage 2 (“No individual exists in a vacuum”) suggests that

(A)   society plays a key role in determining an individual’s behavior

(B)   an individual is accountable to those around him

(C)   there is no relationship between individual behavior and society

(D)   an individual can have a major impact on society

(E)   without organized society, individuals would cease to exist

12. The author of Passage 2 uses the example of a “perfect” (line 50) society to suggest that

(A)   common values are necessary for a successful society

(B)   it is a reflection of today’s world

(C)   society is obsessed with perfection

(D)   people will never be happy in an imperfect society

(E)   deviant behavior would not exist in such a society

13. In Passage 2, the author describes the realistic model of society in a tone that is

(A)   nostalgic for the calmer days of society

(B)   objectively summarizing a realistic society

(C)   critical of disorganization in society

(D)   reproachful of companies that promote technological growth

(E)   approving of individuals who dissent from society

14. In line 77, “engenders” most nearly means

(A)   sexualizes

(B)   publicizes

(C)   enables

(D)   advocates

(E)   causes

15. When change is constant, which of the following is LEAST likely to result, according to the author of the second passage?

(A)   Immigration augments a society.

(B)   Organization and harmony become the rule.

(C)   Technological advancement spurs innovations.

(D)   Disorganization reigns supreme.

(E)   Social fluctuation is the norm.

16. Both passages support which generalization about deviant behavior?

(A)   Acts of deviance are based on thoughtful decision of the individual.

(B)   Society is the main cause of deviant behavior.

(C)   Deviant behavior can be eliminated only through severe punishment.

(D)   Societal decisions can have an impact on the prevalence of deviance.

(E)   The arrival of the Enlightenment in Europe promoted social deviance.

17. Which aspect of deviant behavior seems to matter a great deal in Passage 1, but not in Passage 2?

(A)   The influence of demons on criminals

(B)   The intellectual evaluation made by an individual

(C)   The methods for calculating punishment

(D)   The effects society has on the individual

(E)   The act of robbing a bank

18. The passages differ in focus in that Passage 1

(A)   questions current theories while Passage 2 praises them

(B)   presents a modern assessment while Passage 2 looks to ancient texts

(C)   proves a thesis while Passage 2 analyzes several hypotheses

(D)   examines a historical view while Passage 2 proffers the author’s opinion

(E)   introduces an accepted point of view while Passage 2 undermines that point of view

19. Which statement best describes a significant difference between the two interpretations of how deviant behavior is propagated?

(A)   Passage 1 emphasizes the individual’s role; Passage 2 emphasizes society’s role.

(B)   Passage 1 explains the history of deviance; Passage 2 emphasizes the modern perspective.

(C)   Passage 1 discusses the demonic perspective; Passage 2 discusses the role of disorganization.

(D)   Passage 1 presents several reasons for deviant behavior; Passage 2 does not.

(E)   Passage 1 praises deviant behavior in some cases; Passage 2 does not.

S T O P
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

SECTION 10
Time — 10 minutes
14 Questions


Turn to Section 10 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.



Directions: For each question in this section, select the best answer from among the choices given and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.


  1. Weather vanes range in style from the practical to the fanciful, but in the end its purpose is still the same : to point out the direction of the wind.

(A)   its purpose is still the same

(B)   their purpose being the same

(C)   the purpose is the same for every one of them

(D)   they all share the same purpose

(E)   the purpose is the same for all of them

  2. The horrors of war and the experiences of a woman serving in the Woman’s Royal Navy Service during the Second World War, which are stirringly chronicled in Edith Pargeter’s novel She Goes to War.

(A)   the Second World War, which are stirringly chronicled

(B)   the Second World War are stirringly chronicled

(C)   a stirring chronicle of the Second World War

(D)   the Second World War, that appear in a stirring chronicle

(E)   a chronicle of the Second World War that stirs the emotions

  3. The commercial airliner flew too close to the military base, an act that the army viewed as a violation of its air space.

(A)   as

(B)   as if it was

(C)   to be

(D)   that it was

(E)   for

  4. Arvo Pärt is an Estonian composer, he is noted for his ethereal, unusual harmonies, and he will direct the symphony concert tonight.

(A)   Arvo Pärt is an Estonian composer, he is noted for his ethereal, unusual harmonies, and he

(B)   Arvo Pärt is an Estonian composer noted for his ethereal, unusual harmonies, he

(C)   Arvo Pärt, an Estonian composer, and because he is noted for his ethereal, unusual harmonies, he

(D)   Although Arvo Pärt is an Estonian composer, he is noted for his ethereal, unusual harmonies, and he

(E)   Arvo Pärt, an Estonian composer noted for his ethereal, unusual harmonies,

  5. The lawyer for the plaintiff in the civil court case responded to the emotional appeals of the defendant she produced actual physical evidence of the defendant’s culpability.

(A)   defendant she produced

(B)   defendant with the production of

(C)   defendant, produced

(D)   defendant; and produced

(E)   defendant by producing

  6. Sandeep could objectively judge the results of the experiment only after he realized that he could depend on expertise different from his own.

(A)   could depend on expertise different from his own

(B)   can depend on expertise different from his own

(C)   could depend on expertise different from his expertise

(D)   can depend on expertise different from his expertise

(E)   would have the ability to depend on expertise different from his own

  7. Dr. Kornstein’s colleagues considered him not only a great surgeon but also being an inspiring teacher of innovative surgical techniques.

(A)   being an inspiring teacher of

(B)   having inspired the teaching of

(C)   with inspiration teaching

(D)   he was inspiring in his teaching of

(E)   an inspiring teacher of

  8. Many employees chose to switch to the new company insurance plan for the reasons that their monthly payments would be reduced.

(A)   for the reasons that their monthly payments would be reduced

(B)   because their monthly payments would be reduced

(C)   because of their reductions in monthly payments

(D)   because its monthly payments were to be reduced

(E)   for the reason that they reduced their monthly payment

  9. In spite of an appearance of no specific expression on its face, a squirrel sometimes plays clever games with anyone trying to view it, scrambling to the opposite side of a tree to elude a would-be observer.

(A)   In spite of an appearance of no specific expression on its face, a squirrel

(B)   Despite the fact of an appearance of no specific expression on its face, a squirrel

(C)   Although the expression on the face of the squirrel is not specific in appearance, it

(D)   Although a squirrel appears to have no specific expression on its face, it

(E)   Although the face of a squirrel has no specific expression, it

10. Learning from recent field tests, the efficiency of the engine on which they would base next year’s trucks was significantly increased by the designers.

(A)   the efficiency of the engine on which they would base next year’s trucks was significantly increased by the designers

(B)   the designers based next year’s truck engine on a significant increase in efficiency

(C)   the designers significantly increased the efficiency of the engine on which they would base next year’s trucks

(D)   their efficiency was significant in designing the engine as a basis for next year’s trucks

(E)   the engine on which the designers would base next year’s trucks was significantly increased in efficiency

11. The crash of the Mars Climate Orbiter was caused by a lack of training among the members of the navigation team and failing to use metric units in the coding of the software.

(A)   failing to use metric units

(B)   a failure to use metric units

(C)   by people which failed to use metric units

(D)   because of the failure to use metric units

(E)   because people failed to use metric units

12. Rory and I, starting to clear the snow away from the front door, we still have hours of work ahead of us.

(A)   Rory and I, starting to clear the snow away from the front door

(B)   Rory and I, starting to clear the snow away from the front door, however

(C)   Rory and I have started to clear the snow away from the front door, and

(D)   Even though starting from the front door to clear the snow away, Rory and I

(E)   Even though Rory and I have started to clear the snow away from the front door

13. While rhododendron and cherry blossoms are both bright in color, the main difference being the size of the tree that grows them.

(A)   the main difference being the size of the tree that grows them

(B)   the main difference is that they grow on two trees that are different

(C)   the two grow on trees of different sizes

(D)   the main difference being they grow on different-size trees

(E)   and the trees they grow on are different in size

14. Better known for The Foreigner, other works of Larry Shue, such as The Nerd, were of equal quality even though they were less famous.

(A)   other works of Larry Shue, such as The Nerd,

(B)   other works by Larry Shue, such as The Nerd,

(C)   Larry Shue also created other works, such as The Nerd, that

(D)   Larry Shue’s other works, like The Nerd,

(E)   Larry Shue wrote other stories, like The Nerd, that

For directions on how to score your SAT practice test, see this page. Section 4 is the unscored, Experimental section.



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