5 Steps to a 5: AP Biology 2017 (2016)

STEP 2

Determine Your Test Readiness

CHAPTER 3 Take a Diagnostic Exam

CHAPTER 3

Take a Diagnostic Exam

IN THIS CHAPTER

Summary: In the following pages you will find a diagnostic exam. It is intended to give you an idea of your level of preparation in biology. After you have completed the test, check your answers against the given answers.

Key Ideas

Practice the kind of multiple-choice questions you might be asked on the real exam.

Answer questions that approximate the coverage of themes on the real exam.

Check your work against the given answers.

Determine your areas of strength and weakness.

Highlight the concepts to which you must give special attention.

Time–45 minutes

For the following multiple-choice questions, select the best answer choice and fill in the appropriate oval on the answer grid.

1 . A pH of 10 is how many times more basic than a pH of 7?

A. 2

B. 10

C. 100

D. 1,000

E. 10,000

2 . A reaction that breaks down compounds by the addition of water is known as

A. a hydrolysis reaction.

B. a dehydration reaction.

C. an endergonic reaction.

D. an exergonic reaction.

E. a redox reaction.

3 . Which of the following is not a lipid?

A. Steroid

B. Fat

C. Phospholipid

D. Glycogen

E. Cholesterol

4 . A compound contains a COOH group. What functional group is that?

A. Amino group

B. Carbonyl group

C. Carboxyl group

D. Hydroxyl group

E. Phosphate group

5 . The presence of which of the following organelles or structures would most convincingly indicate that a cell is a eukaryote and not a prokaryote?

A. Plasma membrane

B. Cell wall

C. Nucleoid

D. Lysosome

E. Ribosome

6 . Destruction of microfilaments would most adversely affect which of the following?

A. Cell division

B. Cilia

C. Flagella

D. Muscular contraction

E. Chitin

7 . Which of the following forms of cell transport requires the input of energy?

A. Diffusion

B. Osmosis

C. Facilitated diffusion

D. Movement of a solute down its concentration gradient

E. Active transport

8 . Among the following choices, which one would most readily move through a selectively permeable membrane?

A. Small, uncharged polar molecule

B. Protein hormone

C. Large, uncharged polar molecule

D. Glucose

E. Sodium ion

For questions 9–12, please use the following answers:

A. Glycolysis

B. Krebs cycle

C. Oxidative phosphorylation

D. Chemiosmosis

E. Fermentation

9 . This reaction occurs in the mitochondria and involves the formation of ATP from NADH and FADH₂ .

10 . The coupling of the movement of electrons down the electron transport chain with the formation of ATP using the driving force provided by the proton gradient.

11 . This reaction occurs in the cytoplasm and has as its products 2 ATP, 2 NADH, and 2-pyruvate.

12 . This reaction is performed by cells in an effort to regenerate the NAD⁺ required for glycolysis to continue.

13 . Which of the following is a specialized feature of plants that live in hot and dry regions?

A. Stomata that open and close

B. Transpiration

C. Photophosphorylation

D. C₄ photosynthesis

E. Carbon fixation

14 . The light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis occur in the

A. nucleus.

B. cytoplasm.

C. mitochondria.

D. thylakoid membrane.

E. stroma.

15 . The oxygen produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis comes directly from

A. H₂ O.

B. H₂ O₂ .

C. C₂ H₃ O₂ .

D. CO₂ .

E. CO.

16 . The cyclic pathway of photosynthesis occurs because

A. the chloroplasts need to regenerate NAD⁺ .

B. the Calvin cycle uses more ATP than NADPH.

C. it can occur in regions lacking light.

D. it is a more efficient way to produce oxygen.

E. it is a more efficient way to produce the NADPH needed for the Calvin cycle.

17 . Which of the following statements about mitosis is correct?

A. Mitosis makes up 30 percent of the cell cycle.

B. The order of mitosis is prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase.

C. Single-cell eukaryotes undergo mitosis as part of asexual reproduction.

D. Mitosis is performed by prokaryotic cells.

E. Cell plates are formed in animal cells during mitosis.

18 . An organism that alternates between a haploid and a diploid multicellular stage during its life cycle is most probably a

A. shark.

B. human.

C. whale.

D. pine tree.

E. amoeba.

19 . Homologous chromosomes are chromosomes that

A. are found only in identical twins.

B. are formed during mitosis.

C. split apart during meiosis II.

D. resemble one another in shape, size, and function.

E. determine the sex of an organism.

20 . Crossover occurs during

A. prophase of mitosis.

B. prophase I of meiosis.

C. prophase II of meiosis.

D. prophase I and II of meiosis.

E. all the above.

21 . Which of the following conditions is an X-linked condition?

A. Hemophilia

B. Tay-Sachs disease

C. Huntington’s disease

D. Cystic fibrosis

E. Sickle cell anemia

22 . In hypercholesterolemia, a genetic condition found in humans, individuals who are HH have normal cholesterol levels, those who are hh have horrifically high cholesterol levels, and those who are Hh have cholesterol levels that are somewhere in between. This is an example of

A. dominance.

B. incomplete dominance.

C. codominance.

D. pleiotropy.

E. epistasis.

23 . The situation in which a gene at one locus alters the phenotypic expression of a gene at another locus is known as

A. dominance.

B. incomplete dominance.

C. codominance.

D. pleiotropy.

E. epistasis.

24 . Which of the following is an example of aneuploidy?

A. Cri-du-chat syndrome

B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia

C. Turner syndrome

D. Achondroplasia

E. Phenylketonuria

25 . Which of the following is an incorrect statement about DNA replication?

A. It occurs in the nucleus.

B. It occurs in a semiconservative fashion.

C. Helicase is the enzyme that adds the nucleotides to the growing strand.

D. DNA polymerase can build only in a 5′-to-3′ direction.

E. It occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle.

26 . A virus that carries the reverse transcriptase enzyme is

A. a retrovirus.

B. a prion.

C. a viroid.

D. a DNA virus.

E. a plasmid.

27 . The uptake of foreign DNA from the surrounding environment is known as

A. generalized transduction.

B. specialized transduction.

C. conjugation.

D. transformation.

E. crossover.

28 . The process by which a huge amount of DNA is created from a small amount of DNA in a very short amount of time is known as

A. cloning.

B. transformation.

C. polymerase chain reaction.

D. gel electrophoresis.

E. generalized transduction.

29 . In a large pond that consists of long-finned fish and short-finned fish, a tornado wreaks havoc on the pond, killing 50 percent of the fish population. By chance, most of the fish killed were short-finned varieties, and in the subsequent generation there were fewer fish with short fins. This is an example of

A. gene flow.

B. natural selection.

C. bottleneck.

D. balanced polymorphism.

E. allopatric speciation.

30 . Imagine that for a particular species of moth, females are primed to respond to two types of male mating calls. Males who produce an in-between version will not succeed at obtaining a mate and will therefore have low reproductive success. This is an example of

A. directional selection.

B. stabilizing selection.

C. artificial selection.

D. honest indicators.

E. disruptive selection.

31 . Traits that are similar between organisms that arose from a common ancestor are known as

A. convergent characters.

B. homologous characters.

C. vestigial characters.

D. stabilizing characters.

E. divergent characters.

32 . Imagine that 9 percent of a population of anteaters have a short snout (recessive), while 91 percent have a long snout (dominant). If this population is in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, what is the expected frequency (in percent) of the heterozygous condition?

A. 26.0

B. 30.0

C. 34.0

D. 38.0

E. 42.0

33 . Which of the following is the least specific taxonomic classification category?

A. Class

B. Division

C. Order

D. Family

E. Genus

34 . Which of the following is not a characteristic of bryophytes?

A. They were the first land plants.

B. They contain a waxy cuticle to protect against water loss.

C. They package their gametes into gametangia.

D. They do not contain xylem.

E. The dominant generation is the sporophyte.

35 . Halophiles would be classified into which major kingdom?

A. Monera

B. Protista

C. Plantae

D. Fungi

E. Animalia

36 . Plants that produce a single spore type that gives rise to bisexual gametophytes are called

A. heterosporous.

B. tracheophytes.

C. gymnosperms.

D. homosporous.

E. angiosperms.

37 . A vine that wraps around the trunk of a tree is displaying the concept known as

A. photoperiodism.

B. thigmotropism.

C. gravitropism.

D. phototropism.

E. transpiration.

38 . These cells control the opening and closing of a plant’s stomata:

A. Guard cells

B. Collenchyma cells

C. Parenchyma cells

D. Mesophyll cells

E. Sclerenchyma cells

39 . You have just come back from visiting the redwood forests in California and were amazed at how wide those trees were. What process is responsible for the increase in width of these trees?

A. Growth of guard cells

B. Growth of collenchyma cells

C. Growth of apical meristem cells

D. Growth of lateral meristem cells

E. Growth of trachied cells

40 . This hormone is known for assisting in the closing of the stomata, and inhibition of cell growth.

A. Abscisic acid

B. Auxin

C. Cytokinin

D. Ethylene

E. Gibberellin

41 . In which of the following structures would one most likely find smooth muscle?

A. Biceps muscle

B. Heart

C. Digestive tract

D. Quadriceps muscle

E. Gluteus maximus muscle

42 . Which of the following hormones is not released by the anterior pituitary gland?

A. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

B. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

C. Growth hormone (GH or STH)

D. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

E. Luteinizing hormone (LH)

43 . Most of the digestion of food occurs in the

A. mouth.

B. esophagus.

C. stomach.

D. small intestine.

E. large intestine.

44 . Antigen invader → B-cell meets antigen → B-cell differentiates into plasma cells and memory cells → plasma cells produce antibodies → antibodies eliminate antigen. The preceding sequence of events is a description of

A. cell-mediated immunity.

B. humoral immunity.

C. nonspecific immunity.

D. phagocytosis.

E. cytotoxic T-cell maturation.

45 . In humans, spermatogenesis, the process of male gamete formation, occurs in the

A. interstitial cells.

B. seminiferous tubules.

C. epididymis.

D. vas deferens.

E. seminal vesicles.

46 . The trophoblast formed during the early stages of human embryology eventually develops into the

A. placenta.

B. embryo.

C. epiblast.

D. hypoblast.

E. morula.

47 . Which of the following structures would not have developed from the mesoderm?

A. Muscle

B. Heart

C. Kidneys

D. Bones

E. Liver

48 . In humans, the developing embryo tends to attach to this structure.

A. Fallopian tube

B. Oviduct

C. Endometrium

D. Cervix

E. Ovary

For questions 49–52, please use the following answer choices:

A. Associative learning

B. Insight learning

C. Optimal foraging

D. Imprinting

E. Altruistic behavior

49 . The ability to reason through a problem the first time through with no prior experience.

50 . Action in which an organism helps another, even if it comes at its own expense.

51 . Process by which an animal substitutes one stimulus for another to get the same response.

52 . Innate behavior learned during a critical period early in life.

53 . Warning coloration adopted by animals that possess a chemical defense mechanism is known as

A. cryptic coloration.

B. deceptive markings.

C. aposemetric coloration.

D. batesian mimicry.

E. müllerian mimicry.

54 . Ants live on acacia trees and are able to feast on the sugar produced by the trees. The tree is protected by the ants’ attack on any foreign insects that may harm the tree. This is an example of

A. parasitism.

B. commensualism.

C. mutualism.

D. symbiosis.

E. competition.

55 . What biome is known for having the greatest diversity of species?

A. Taiga

B. Temperate grasslands

C. Tropical forest

D. Savanna

E. Deciduous forest

56 . Which of the following is a characteristic of an R-selected strategist?

A. Low reproductive rate

B. Extensive postnatal care

C. Relatively constant population size

D. J-shaped growth curve

E. Members include humans

For questions 57–60, please use the information from the following laboratory experiment:

You are working as a summer intern at the local university laboratory, and a lab technician comes into your room, throws a few graphs and tables at you, and mutters, “Interpret this data for me . . . I need to go play golf. I’ll be back this afternoon for your report.” Analyze the data this technician so kindly gave to you, and use it to answer questions 57–60. The reaction rates reported in the tables are relative to the original rate of the reaction in the absence of the enzymes. The three enzymes used are all being added to the same reactants to determine which should be used in the future.

Room Temperature (25°C), pH 7

Varying Temperature, Constant (pH 7)

Varying pH, Constant Temperature = 25°C

57 . If you had also been given a graph that plotted the moles of product produced versus time, what would have been the best way to calculate the rate for the reaction?

A. Calculate the average of the slope of the curve for the first and last minute of reaction.

B. Calculate the slope of the curve for the portion of the curve that is constant.

C. Calculate the slope of the curve for the portion where the slope begins to flatten out.

D. Add up the total number of moles produced during each time interval and divide by the total number of time intervals measured.

E. The rate of reaction cannot be determined from the graph.

58 . Over the interval measured, at what temperature does enzyme 2 appear to have its optimal efficiency?

A. 10°C

B. 15°C

C. 20°C

D. 25°C

E. 30°C

59 . Which of the following statements about enzyme 3 is incorrect?

A. At a pH of 6 and a temperature of 25°C, it is more efficient than enzyme 2 but less efficient than enzyme 1.

B. It functions more efficiently in the acidic pH range than the basic pH range.

C. At 30°C and a pH of 7, it is less efficient than both enzymes 1 and 2.

D. Over the interval given, its optimal temperature at a pH of 7 is 10°C.

E. Over the interval given, its optimal pH at a temperature of 25°C is 4.

60 . Which of the following statements can be made from review of these data?

A. Enzyme 1 functions most efficiently in a basic environment and at a lower temperature.

B. All three enzymes function most efficiently above 20°C when the pH is held constant at 7.

C. Enzyme 1 functions more efficiently than enzyme 2 at 10°C and a pH of 7.

D. The pH does not affect the efficiency of enzyme 3.

E. All three enzymes function more efficiently in an acidic environment than a basic environment.

This test was designed to include four questions from each of the 15 review chapters. They are in chronological order for simplicity.

Questions from Chapter 5

1 . D— This question deals with the concept of pH: acids and bases. The pH scale is a logarithmic scale that measures how acidic or basic a solution is. A pH of 4 is 10 times more acidic than a pH of 5. A pH of 6 is 10² or 100 times more basic than a pH of 4, and so on. Therefore, a pH of 10 is 10³ or 1000 times more basic than a pH of 7.

2 . A— This question deals with five types of reactions you should be familiar with for the AP Biology exam. A hydrolysis reaction is one in which water is added, causing the formation of a compound.

3 . D— Glycogen is a carbohydrate. The three major types of lipids you should know are fats, phospholipids, and steroids. Cholesterol is a type of steroid.

4 . C— Functional groups are a pain in the neck. But you need to be able to recognize them on the exam. Most often, the test asks students to identify functional groups by structure.

Questions from Chapter 6

5 . D— Prokaryotes are known for their simplicity. They do not contain a nucleus, nor do they contain membrane-bound organelles. They do have a few structures to remember: cell wall, plasma membrane, ribosomes, and a nucleoid. Lysosomes are found in eukaryotes, not prokaryotes.

6 . D— This question deals with the cytoskeleton of cells. Cell division, cilia, and flagella would be compromised if the microtubules were damaged. Microfilaments, made from actin, are important to muscular contraction. Chitin is a polysaccharide found in fungi.

7 . E— Active transport requires energy. The major types of cell transport you need to know for the exam are diffusion, osmosis, facilitated diffusion, endocytosis, exocytosis, and active transport.

8 . A— The selectively permeable membrane is a lipid bilayer composed of phospholipids, proteins, and other macromolecules. Small, uncharged polar molecules and lipids are able to pass through these membranes without difficulty.

Questions from Chapter 7

9 . C— Each NADH is able to produce up to 3 ATP. Each FADH₂ can produce up to 2 ATP.

10 . D— You have to know the concept of chemiosmosis for the AP exam. Make sure you study it well in Chapter 7 .

11 . A— Glycolysis is the conversion of glucose into pyruvate that occurs in the cytoplasm and is the first step of both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

12 . E— Fermentation is anaerobic respiration, and it is the process that begins with glycolysis and ends with the regeneration of NAD⁺ .

Questions from Chapter 8

13 . D— C₄ photosynthesis is an adaptive photosynthetic process that attempts to counter the problems that hot and dry weather causes for plants. Be sure that you read about and understand the various forms of photosynthesis for the exam.

14 . D— The light-dependent reactions occur in the thylakoid membrane. The dark reactions, known as the Calvin cycle , occur in the stroma.

15 . A— The inputs to the light reactions include light and water. During these reactions, photolysis occurs, which is the splitting of H₂ O into hydrogen ions and oxygen atoms. These oxygen atoms from the water pair together immediately to form the oxygen we breathe.

16 . B— The Calvin cycle uses a disproportionate amount of ATP relative to NADPH. The cyclic light reactions exist to make up for this disparity. The cyclic reactions do not produce NADPH, nor do they produce oxygen.

Questions from Chapter 9

17 . C— Mitosis makes up 10 percent of the cell cycle; the correct order of the stages is prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase; mitosis is not performed by prokaryotic cells; and cell plates are formed in plant cells.

18 . D— This life cycle is the one known as “alternation of generations.” It is the plant life cycle. Pine trees are the only ones among the choices that would show such a cycle.

19 . D— Homologous chromosomes resemble one another in shape, size, and function. They pair up during meiosis and separate from each other during meiosis I.

20 . B— You have to know this fact. We don’t want them to get you on this one if they ask it.

Questions from Chapter 10

21 . A— Tay-Sachs disease, cystic fibrosis, and sickle cell anemia are all autosomal recessive conditions. Huntington’s disease is an autosomal dominant condition. It will serve you well to learn the most common autosomal recessive conditions, X-linked conditions, and autosomal dominant conditions.

22 . B— Incomplete dominance is the situation in which the heterozygous genotype produces an “intermediate” phenotype rather than the dominant phenotype; neither allele dominates the other.

23 . E— Epistasis exists when a gene at one locus affects a gene at another locus.

24 . C— Turner syndrome (XO) is an example of aneuploidy—conditions in which individuals have an abnormal number of chromosomes. These conditions can be monosomies, as is the case with Turner, or they can be trisomies, as is the case with Down, Klinefelter, and other syndromes.

Questions from Chapter 11

25 . C— DNA polymerase is the superstar enzyme of the replication process, which occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle in the nucleus of a cell. The process does occur in semiconservative fashion. You should learn the basic concepts behind replication as they are explained in Chapter 11 .

26 . A— Retroviruses are RNA viruses that carry with them the reverse transcriptase enzyme. When they take over a host cell, they first use the enzyme to convert themselves into DNA. They next incorporate into the DNA of the host, and begin the process of viral replication. The HIV virus of AIDS is a well-known retrovirus.

27 . D— It will serve you well for this exam to be reasonably familiar with biotechnology laboratory techniques. Lab procedures show up often on free-response questions and the later multiple-choice sections of the exam.

28 . C— Polymerase chain reaction is the high-speed cloning machine of molecular genetics. It occurs at a much faster rate than does cloning.

Questions from Chapter 12

29 . C— A bottleneck is a specific example of genetic drift: the sudden change in allele frequencies due to random events.

30 . E— This is a prime example of disruptive selection. Take a look at the material from Chapter 12 on the various types of selection. The illustrations there are worth reviewing.

31 . B— Traits are said to be homologous if they are similar because their host organisms arose from a common ancestor. For example, the bone structure in bird wings is homologous in all bird species.

32 . E— If 9 percent of the population is recessive (ss), then q ² = 0.09. Taking the square root of 0.09 gives us q = 0.30. Knowing as we do that p + q = 1, p + 0.30 = 1, and p = 0.70. The frequency of the heterozygous condition = 2pq = 2(0.30)(0.70) = 42%.

Questions from Chapter 13

33 . B— The stupid phrase we use to remember this classification hierarchy is “Karaoke players can order free grape soda”—kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species. This question is sneaky because it requires you to know that a division is the plant kingdom’s version of the phylum. The kingdom is the least specific subdivision, and the species the most specific. Therefore, B is the correct answer.

34 . E— The dominant generation for bryophytes is the gametophyte (n) generation. They are the only plants for which this is true.

35 . A— Halophiles are a member of the archaebacteria subgroup of the monerans.

36 . D— Homosporous plants, such as ferns, give rise to bisexual gametophytes.

Questions from Chapter 14

37 . B— Thigmotropism, phototropism, and gravitropism are the major tropisms you need to know for plants. Thigmotropism, the growth response of a plant to touch, is the least understood of the bunch.

38 . A— Guard cells are the cells responsible for controlling the opening and closing of the stomata of a plant.

39 . D— This is known as cambium .

40 . A— There are five plant hormones you should know for the exam. Auxin seems to come up the most, but it would serve you well to know the basic functions of all five of them.

Questions from Chapter 15

41 . C— Smooth muscle is found in the digestive tract, bladder, and arteries, to name only a few. Answer choices A, D, and E are skeletal muscles.

42 . B— This hormone, which is involved in controlling the function of the kidney, is released from the posterior pituitary.

43 . D— The small intestine hosts the most digestion of the digestive tract.

44 . B— Humoral immunity is another name for antibody-mediated immunity. Cell-mediated immunity involves T-cells and the direct cellular destruction of invaders such as viruses.

Questions from Chapter 16

45 . B— You should learn the general processes of spermatogenesis and oogenesis in humans for the AP Biology exam.

46 . A— The inner cell mass gives rise to the embryo, which eventually gives rise to the epiblast and hypoblast. The morula is an early stage of development.

47 . E— You should learn the list of structures derived from endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm. (This could be an easy multiple-choice question for you if you do.)

48 . C— Fertilization tends to occur in the oviduct, also known as the fallopian tube . The ovum is produced in the ovary, and the cervix is the passageway from the uterus to the vagina.

Questions from Chapter 17

49 . B— Chapter 17 is fairly short and concise. We left it to the bare bones for you to learn. We would suggest you learn this chapter well because it could be worth a good 5–7 points for you on the exam if you are lucky.

50 . E

51 . A

52 . D

Questions from Chapter 18

53 . C— Learn the defense mechanisms well from predator–prey relationships in Chapter 18 . They will be represented on the exam.

54 . C— Mutualism is the interaction in which both parties involved benefit.

55 . C— Biomes are annoying and tough to memorize. Learn as much as you can about them without taking up too much time. . . . More often than not there will be two to three multiple-choice questions about them. But you want to make sure you learn enough to work your way through a free-response question if you were to be so unfortunate as to have one on your test.

56 . D— A J-shaped growth curve is characteristic of exponentially growing populations. That is a characteristic of R-selected strategists.

Questions from Chapter 19

57 . B— The rate of reaction for an enzyme-aided reaction is best estimated by taking the slope of the constant portion of the moles–time plot.

58 . C— They will test your ability to interpret data on this exam. You should make sure that you are able to look at a chart and interpret information given to you. This enzyme does indeed function most efficiently at 20°C. Above and below that temperature, the reaction rate is lower.

59 . A— At a pH of 6 and a temperature of 25°C, enzyme 3 is actually more efficient than enzyme 2 and less efficient than enzyme 1.

60 . E— This question requires you to know that a pH below 7 (pH < 7) is acidic and a pH above 7 (pH > 7) is basic. It is true that all three enzymes increase the rate of reaction more when in acidic environments than basic environments.

Scoring and Interpretation

Now that you have finished the diagnostic exam and scored yourself, it is time to try to figure out what it all means. First, see if there are any particular areas with which you personally struggled. By this we mean, were there any questions during which you were thinking to yourself something like, “I learned this . . . when ?!?!” or “What the heck is this ?!?!” If so, put a little star next to the chapter that contains the material for which this occurred. You may want to spend a bit more time on that chapter during your review for this exam. It is quite possible that you never learned some of the material in this book. Not every class is able to cover all the same information.

To get your baseline score for this practice exam, use the following formula (where N represents the number of answers):

N _correct = raw score for the multiple-choice section

There are no free-response questions in the diagnostic because we did not want to put you through the torture of that procedure yet, as you are just beginning your journey. As a result, we will guesstimate your score on the basis of multiple-choice questions alone. We will spare you our convoluted calculations and just show you what range we came up with in our analysis. Remember, these are just rough estimates on questions that are not actual AP exam questions . . . do not read too much into them.

If this test went amazingly well for you . . . rock and roll . . . but as we just said, your journey is just beginning, and that means you have time to supplement your knowledge even more before the big day! Use your time well.

If this test went poorly for you, don’t worry; as has been said twice now, your journey is just beginning and you have plenty of time to learn what you need to know for this exam. Just use this as an exercise in focus that has shown you what you need to concentrate on between now and early May. Good luck!