SAT Biology E/M Subject Test

Part III Answers to In-Chapter Questions

Chapter 15 Answers to In-Chapter Questions

CHAPTER 3

Quick Quiz #1

Check the appropriate boxes:

1. Water (H₂O) is an [ organic inorganic ] compound.

2. Cl₂ [ is is not ] a compound.

3. H₂O [ is is not ] a compound.

4. Methane (CH₄) is an [ organic inorganic ] compound.

5. Cl₂ [ is is not ] a molecule.

6. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is an [ organic inorganic ] compound.

7. Products are found on the [ right left ] side of the arrow in a chemical reaction.

Quick Quiz #2

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. The bond that holds two amino acids together is called a peptide bond.

2. The assembly of a protein from its amino acid constituents involves the [ addition removal ] of water, and is called dehydration .

3. An amino acid is a [ monomer polymer ] of a protein.

4. Because proteins are essentially chains of amino acids linked together by peptide bonds, a protein might also be called a polypeptide .

5. The disassembly of a protein into its component amino acids is called hydrolysis and involves the [ addition removal ] of water.

Quick Quiz #3

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. Starch serves as a means of storing glucose in [ plants animals ].

2. A molecule of maltose is formed from two molecules of glucose .

3. Glucose and fructose [ are are not ] identical molecules.

4. A molecule of glucose and a molecule of fructose, both of which are monosaccharides , combine to form a molecule of sucrose , which is a disaccharide .

5. Cellulose is a polysaccharide .

6. Glycogen serves as a means for storing glucose in [ plants animals ] .

7. The chemical formula for both glucose and fructose is C₆H₁₂O₆ .

8. The chemical formula for sucrose is C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁ .

9. Cellulose and glycogen differ in the way that glucose molecules are bonded together.

10. The chemical formulas for sucrose and maltose [ are are not ] identical.

Quick Quiz #4

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. Triglycerides are made of one molecule of glycerol and three fatty acids .

2. Lipids in general are [ hydrophilic hydrophobic ].

3. The primary lipid found in cell membranes is phospholipid .

4. Steroid hormones are derived from cholesterol .

5. Steroid hormones [ are are not ] hydrophobic.

6. Fats are stored in the body in the form of triglycerides .

Quick Quiz #5

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. The fact that double-stranded DNA forms a double helix was discovered by Watson and Crick .

2. The four DNA nucleotide bases are adenine , thymine , cytosine , and guanine .

3. RNA [ is is not ] a double-stranded molecule.

4. RNA nucleotides [ do do not ] contain the exact same bases as DNA nucleotides.

5. In DNA, guanine forms a base pair with cytosine , whereas adenine forms a base pair with thymine .

6. The nucleic acid “backbone” is made up of sugar and phosphate .

7. The sugar in DNA is [ ribose deoxyribose ].

8. In RNA, adenine can form a base pair with uracil .

CHAPTER 4

Quick Quiz #1

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. Animal cells [ do do not ] have cell walls.

2. Bacteria have cell walls made of peptidoglycan .

3. Engulfing large particles in a vesicle is known as endocytosis .

4. Facilitated diffusion is a way for [ hydrophobic hydrophilic ] substances to cross the cell membrane.

5. Fungi have cell walls made of chitin , and plants have cell walls made of cellulose .

6. Simple diffusion [ does does not ] require energy.

7. Hydrophobic substances cross the membrane by simple diffusion .

8. A type of movement that requires energy and moves substances against their concentration gradients is called active transport .

9. B

10. C

Quick Quiz #2

Quick Quiz #3

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. The fact that enzymes interact with substrate by physically fitting together has given rise to the phrase “ lock and key ” theory.

2. Enzymes are known as organic catalysts .

3. When an enzyme has catalyzed a chemical reaction and the products are formed, the enzyme itself [ is is not ] consumed and is [ unavailable available ] to catalyze additional reactions.

4. The location on an enzyme where substrate binds is called the active site .

CHAPTER 5

Quick Quiz #1

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. The process of glycolysis produces ATP and NADH by converting one molecule of glucose to two molecules of pyruvate .

2. The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is found in the matrix of the mitochondria.

3. The process of glycolysis [ does does not ] require oxygen.

4. Glycogen is made of many glucose molecules bonded together, and its function is to store energy.

5. When a molecule (such as an electron carrier) accepts a pair of electrons, we say it has become [ reduced oxidized ].

6. During the PDC, a molecule of pyruvate is converted to acetyl Co-A , a molecule of NADH is produced, and CO₂ is lost.

7. The PDC [ is is not ] an aerobic process.

Quick Quiz #2

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. The Krebs cycle [ does does not ] require oxygen.

2. The principal substance that enters the Krebs cycle is acetyl Co-A .

3. Oxygen is also known as the final electron acceptor .

4. One of the goals of electron transport is to [ reduce oxidize ] the electron carriers back to “empty.”

5. Electron transport occurs along the inner membrane of the mitochondria.

6. The products of the Krebs cycle are three molecules of NADH , one molecule of ATP , and one molecule of FADH₂ .

7. ATP synthase relies on the facilitated diffusion of H⁺ ions down their gradient to produce ATP.

8. In the last step of the electron transport chain, oxygen accepts electrons to form water .

Quick Quiz #3

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. Fermentation produces ethanol in yeast and lactic acid in muscle cells.

2. Anaerobic organisms [ do do not ] conduct glycolysis.

3. Anaerobic respiration (fermentation) produces [ less more ] ATP than aerobic respiration.

4. In fermentation, NADH is oxidized to NAD⁺, whereas pyruvate is reduced .

5. Anaerobic organisms [ do do not ] conduct the Krebs cycle.

CHAPTER 6

Quick Quiz #1

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. If two individuals are of the same species, then the chromosomes in one individual”s cells [ are are not] identical to the chromosomes in the other individual”s cells.

2. The enzyme that runs DNA replication is called DNA polymerase .

3. Humans have 46 total chromosomes found as 2 sets of 23 chromosomes each.

4. One strand of DNA serves as a template for the creation of a complementary strand.

5. If two cells are taken from the same individual, the chromosomes in one cell [ are are not ] identical to the chromosomes in the other cell.

6. Homologous chromosomes [ are are not ] identical.

Quick Quiz #2

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. Production of a strand of RNA from a strand of DNA is called transcription .

2. The sequence of RNA that is complementary to the DNA sequence CAGTATACG is GUCAUAUGC .

3. Portions of DNA that carry instructions for protein synthesis are called [ genes codons ].

4. tRNA carries amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes during protein translation.

5. The sequence of codons on mRNA is read in [ overlapping nonoverlapping ] sequence.

6. The three “stop” codons are UAA , UGA , and UAG .

7. Synthesis of protein using a strand of RNA is called translation .

8. The “start” codon is [ AUG UAG ], and it codes for methionine .

Quick Quiz #3

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. In order to base-pair, the anticodon on a tRNA must be complementary to an mRNA codon.

2. Peptide bonds are formed between [ tRNAs amino acids ].

3. The next amino acid for the protein being translated binds (attaches to its tRNA) in the [ A-site P-site ].

4. The growing protein is attached to the ribosome through a tRNA in the [ A-site P-site ].

5. When a stop codon appears in the [ A-site P-site ], the protein is released from the ribosome.

CHAPTER 7

Quick Quiz #1

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. A human cell, after interphase, has a total of 46 chromosomes, each made up of two chromatids .

2. During the stage called interphase, [ all only some ] of the cell”s chromosomes replicate.

3. According to current biological terminology, a human cell, after interphase, has in its nucleus a total of [ 92 46 ] chromosomes, each chromosome having at its center a centromere that joins the chromatids together.

4. DNA replication is [ the only process one of many processes ] that takes place during interphase.

Quick Quiz #2

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. The cell”s chromosomes become visible during a stage called prophase .

2. The spindle apparatus forms during a stage called [ anaphase prophase metaphase ].

3. The division of the cell”s cytoplasm is known as cytokinesis , and this occurs during [ prophase anaphase telophase ].

4. Duplicate chromosomes (the chromatids) separate from each other and move to opposite poles of the cell during a stage called anaphase .

5. During a stage called interphase , all of a cell”s chromosomes replicate.

6. The centromeres divide during a stage called anaphase .

7. During prophase, the centrioles move away from one another toward opposite sides of the cell.

Quick Quiz #3

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. If, for a particular organism, the diploid number of chromosomes is 10, then the haploid number is 5 .

2. The first metaphase of meiosis (metaphase I) differs from metaphase of mitosis in that a pair of chromosomes lines up on each spindle fiber.

3. The four cells resulting from meiosis are haploid .

4. Crossing over occurs after synaspsis .

5. The word [ haploid diploid ] refers to a cell for which each chromosome does NOT have a homologous partner.

6. The first anaphase of meiosis (anaphase I) differs from anaphase of mitosis in that centromeres [ do do not ] divide.

7. Prophase I of meiosis [ is is not ] similar to prophase of mitosis.

Quick Quiz #4

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. The cells produced at the end of telophase I are considered to be [ haploid diploid ].

2. Spermatogenesis begins at puberty and lasts for the life of the man .

3. 4 mature sperm are produced from a single spermatogonium.

4. The female gonad is the ovary .

5. Oogenesis begins at puberty and ends at menopause .

6. [ Four One ] mature ova (ovum) are (is) produced from a single primary oocyte.

7. Spermatogenesis takes place on a [ daily monthly ] basis, whereas oogenesis takes place on a [ daily monthly ] basis.

8. The cells that disintegrate during oogenesis are called polar bodies .

CHAPTER 8

Quick Quiz #1

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. A

2. The term allele [ is is not ] precisely synonymous with the term gene.

3. C

4. If, in a particular organism, one allele on one member of a homologous chromosome pair codes for blue eye color, and a corresponding allele on the other codes for brown eye color, the organism is said to be [ homozygous heterozygous ] for eye color.

5. If an organism is heterozygous for eye color, with one allele coding for green and the other allele coding for gray, the organism will have [ green eyes gray eyes ] if green is dominant, and [ green eyes gray eyes ] if gray is dominant.

6. If, for a particular species, the allele that produces a disease called erythemia is dominant and the corresponding allele that produces the absence of disease (a normal organism) is recessive, then

(a) an organism with a genotype that is heterozygous for the trait will have the phenotype [ normal erythemia ].

(b) An organism with a genotype that is homozygous for the dominant allele will have the phenotype [ normal erythemia ].

(c) An organism with a genotype that is homozygous for the recessive allele will have the phe notype [ normal erythemia ].

(d) An organism with a phenotype that is normal must have a genotype that is [ homozygous heterozygous ].

Quick Quiz #2

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. A male person receives from his father a(n) [ X Y ] chromosome.

2. A male person [ may must ] have the genotype [ XY XX YY ].

3. A female person [ may must ] have the genotype [ XY XX YY ].

4. In terms of sex, all persons, male or female, receive from their mothers a(n) X chromosome.

5. In terms of sex, all females receive from their fathers a(n) X chromosome.

Genotype Check-In

• With reference to the parents whose genotypes are shown on this page.

(a) 50% of children are likely to be male.

(b) 50% of children are likely to be female.

(c) There is [ no some ] likelihood that a child will have phenotype hemophilia.

(d) There is [ no some ] likelihood that a female child will have phenotype hemophilia.

(e) There is [ no some ] likelihood that a male child will have phenotype hemophilia.

(f) The likelihood that a male child will be born with hemophilia is 25% .

Quick Quiz #3

Consider the pedigree below, then fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. This condition is [ dominant recessive ].
Because the condition “skips” generations it is recessive. Look at individual 10. Neither his parents nor his offspring have the condition.

2. This condition is [ autosomal X-linked ].
Because equal numbers of males and females display the condition, it is autosomal. X-linked conditions are seen more frequently in males.

3. The genotype of individual 10 is [ homozygous heterozygous ].
Because the condition is recessive, and individual 10 is affected by the condition (displays the phenotype), then he must be homozygous for the condition.

4. The genotype of individual 17 is [ homozygous heterozygous ].
Individual 17 is the child of an affected (homozygous recessive) parent and an unaffected parent. Remember that individuals who marry into a family are considered to be completely normal; therefore, individual 11 does not carry the allele and is homozygous for the dominant (normal) condition. Let”s draw a Punnett square to determine the genotypes of their offspring. We”ll use N to represent the normal allele and n to represent the abnormal allele.

As you can see, all offspring would have the genotype Nn (heterozygous) and would not display the condition.

5. The genotypes of individuals 1 and 2 are [ homozygous heterozygous ].
Individuals 1 and 2 must be heterozygous for the condition. Neither of them display the affected phenotype; therefore, they must each have at least one normal allele (genotype N/?). Because they have offspring that are affected by the condition, they must also each have one abnormal allele (genotype Nn). The only way to produce homozygous recessive offspring is if each parent donates a recessive allele. Here”s the Punnett square:

6. If individual 3 were to marry a normal male who does not carry the allele for the condition, the probability they would produce affected offspring would be zero .
Individual 3 is affected by this recessive condition, so she must have a homozygous recessive genotype (nn). A normal male who does not carry the allele for this condition would have the homozygous dominant genotype (NN). All their offspring would be heterozygous and normal. Here”s the Punnett square:

7. If individual 4 were to marry a female carrier of the condition (a female heterozygous for the condition), the probability they would produce affected offspring would be 50% .
Individual 4 is affected by the condition and therefore has the homozygous recessive genotype (nn). If he were to marry a heterozygous female, the probability of producing an affected child would be 50%. Here”s the Punnett square:

CHAPTER 9

Quick Quiz #1

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. According to the heterotroph hypothesis, hydrogen [ was was not ] a chief component of the atmosphere when life began.

2. At present, the gas of highest concentration in Earth”s atmosphere is [ helium oxygen nitrogen ].

3. According to the heterotroph hypothesis, water [ was was not ] a chief component of the atmosphere when life began.

4. The primary organisms on early Earth were anaerobic .

5. According to the heterotroph hypothesis, methane [ was was not ] a chief component of the atmosphere when life began.

6. According to the heterotroph hypothesis, oxygen [ was was not ] a chief component of the atmosphere when life began.

7. The primary organisms on Earth today are aerobic .

8. According to the heterotroph hypothesis, ammonia [ was was not ] a chief component of the atmosphere when life began.

Quick Quiz #2

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. The phrase “ genetic variability ” refers to the fact that within any population of any species, genotypes vary (i.e., the gene pool features a wide variety of alleles).

2. Genetic variability [ is is not ] caused by a species” ability to adapt to existing environmental conditions.

3. Genetic variability [ is is not ] attributable to random mutation.

4. Once a mutation has occurred, all members of the population [ will will not ] display the results of that mutation.

5. Genetic variability [ is is not ] a property of all populations.

6. If a mutation were to occur in a somatic cell instead of a gamete (sperm or ovum), that mutation [ could could not ] cause genetic variability in the population.

Quick Quiz #3

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. Evolution [ always sometimes ] results in the production of a new species.

2. Speciation [ increases decreases ] biological diversity.

3. In the course of divergent evolution, two populations become [ more less ] similar to each other with regard to behaviors and traits.

4. Evolution means a change in a population”s gene pool .

5. If a population is geographically divided, it [ cannot may ] give rise to two separate species.

6. Evolution that results in two species becoming more similar to each other in terms of behaviors and traits is called convergent evolution.

7. Divergent evolution can result from [ only physical only behavioral both physical and behavioral ] selection pressures from the environment.

8. Convergent evolution [ can cannot ] result in speciation.

Quick Quiz #4

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. The science of classification is called [ taxidermy taxonomy ].

2. The conventional ordering of phylogeny is domain, kingdom, phylum , class , order , family , genus , species .

3. The members of a kingdom [ do do not ] have more in common than do the members of an order.

4. The members of an order [ do do not ] have more in common than do the members of a class.

Quick Quiz #5

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. A

2. Soft-bodied animals with hard external shells are classified as mollusks .

3. With respect to the evolution of chordates, fish appeared [ before after ] birds, and birds appeared [ before after ] mammals.

4. Animals with jointed appendages, hard exoskeletons, and segmented bodies are classified as arthropods .

5. Prokaryotes [ do do not ] have a nucleus.

6. A

7. D

8. Having flower parts in multiples of four or five is a characteristic of [ monocots dicots ].

9. Protists [ do do not ] have a nucleus.

10. Mosses and liverworts are examples of nonvascular plants.

11. Cyanobacteria [ can cannot ] photosynthesize.

12. Earthworms and other segmented worms belong to phylum [ Annelida Arthropoda ].

13. The order in which chordates appeared on Earth is (1) fish, (2) amphibia , (3) reptiles , (4) birds , (5) mammals .

14. Plants with parallel veins in their leaves and flower parts in multiples of three are classified as [ monocots dicots ].

15. Conifers, such as pine trees, are classified as [ angiosperms gymnosperms ].

CHAPTER 10

Quick Quiz #1

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. Fungi are classified as [ eukaryotes prokaryotes ].

2. Bacteria [ do do not ] have mitochondria.

3. Bacteria [ do do not ] have ribosomes.

4. Bacteria [ do do not ] have cell walls.

5. Yeast are [ eukaryotes prokaryotes ] that reproduce by budding .

6. A viral capsid is made of protein.

7. [ Transformation Transduction ] occurs when a virus transfers some DNA from one bacterium to another.

8. Fungi [ can cannot ] photosynthesize.

9. Bacteria that are perfectly happy in the presence OR absence of oxygen are called facultative anaerobes .

10. Number the following steps of the lytic cycle in the order they would occur:

2 Virus injects nucleic acid into host cell.

5 Host cell is lysed and new viruses are released.

1   Viral capsid attaches to host cell.

4 New capsids are formed.

3 Viral nucleic acids are replicated using host cell machinery.

11. [ Some All ] fungi are eukaryotes.

12. A [ parasitic mutualistic ] relationship exists between some plants and nitrogen-fixing bacteria. These types of plants are called legumes .

13. When a bacterium replicates its DNA and gives some of the DNA to another bacterium through a pilus, this is called conjugation .

14. Fungi have a cell wall made of [ proteoglycan chitin ].

15. Bacteria are classified as [ prokaryotes eukaryotes ] and therefore [ do do not ] have nuclei.

16. An enzyme that makes a strand of RNA by reading a strand of DNA is called DNA-dependent RNA polymerase .

17. Retroviruses go through the [ lytic lysogenic ] lifecycle.

Quick Quiz #2

1. A staggered cut of DNA by a restriction enzyme produces sticky ends.

2. A piece of DNA cut with a restriction enzyme that produces sticky ends can be ligated to any piece of DNA cut with [ the same restriction enzyme any other restriction enzyme that produces sticky ends ].

3. The enzyme that seals together cut pieces of DNA is called DNA ligase .

4. A sequence of DNA that reads the same from both directions is called a palindrome .

5. [ True False ] A piece of DNA cut with a restriction enzyme that produces blunt ends can be ligated into a plasmid cut with any other restriction enzyme.

CHAPTER 11

Quick Quiz #1

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. The NA⁺/K⁺ ATPase is a membrane protein that pumps three sodium ions out of the cell and two potassium ions into the cell.

2. Sodium ions [ can cannot ] cross back into the cell after being pumped out.

3. Dendrites [ receive transmit ] an electrical impulse.

4. The direction in which an impulse travels through a neuron is dendrites to cell body to axon .

5. Potassium concentration is [ higher lower ] inside the cell than outside.

6. The resting membrane potential of the cell is –70 mV .

7. Sodium concentration is [ higher lower ] inside the cell than outside.

8. The axon of a neuron carries the nerve impulse [ toward away from ] the cell body.

Quick Quiz #2

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. Depolarization results from an [ influx efflux ] of [ sodium potassium ] ions.

2. Rapid, “jumping” conduction is called saltatory conduction .

3. Threshold potential is [ –70 mV –50 mV ].

4. A return to the resting, polarized state is called repolarization .

5. The small portion of a neuron”s membrane that is undergoing an action potential is relatively [ positive negative ] on the inside and [ positive negative ] on the outside.

6. The time during which a portion of the membrane is unable to fire an action potential (because of the fact that it has just fired one) is called the refractory period .

7. In a myelinated axon, action potentials occur only at the [ Schwann cells nodes of Ranvier].

8. Repolarization results from an [ influx efflux ] of [ sodium potassium ] ions.

9. Ion channels that open at a particular membrane potential are said to be voltage-gated .

Quick Quiz #3

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. A neuron whose resting potential is moving away from threshold is said to be [ stimulated inhibited ].

2. The small space between the axon terminus of one neuron and the dendrites of the next neuron is called the synaptic cleft .

3. A synapse can be found between a [ neuron and an organ neuron and a neuron both of these ].

4. The most common neurotransmitter in the body is acetylcholine .

5. A neurotransmitter is released from [ vesicles receptors ] and binds to [ vesicles receptors ].

6. Receptors that open sodium channels would cause the neuron to depolarize .

7. A neuron will fire an action potential only if its membrane potential reaches threshold .

Quick Quiz #4

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. The CNS consists of the brain and the spinal cord .

2. Motor neurons are part of the [ CNS PNS ].

3. Interneurons are part of the [ CNS PNS ].

4. The hypothalamus maintains body homeostasis.

5. Conscious awareness of our selves and our surroundings is controlled by the [ cerebrum cerebellum ] of the brain.

6. The [ somatic sympathetic ] division of the PNS controls the skeletal muscles.

7. E

8. The [ sympathetic somatic parasympathetic ] division of the PNS is in control of a person watching TV.

9. C

10. Neurons of the PNS are [ entirely separated from connected to ] neurons of the CNS.

11. Conscious thought processes are carried out by the cerebrum .

Quick Quiz #5

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. Peptide hormones have receptors [ outside inside ] the cell, and steroids have receptors [ outside inside ] the cell.

2. The organs that are affected by a particular hormone are referred to as that hormone”s target organs .

3. The endocrine system is [ faster slower ] than the nervous system.

4. Peptide hormones cause their effects [ more less ] rapidly than steroid hormones.

5. Steroid hormones cause their effects by modifying transcription .

6. Steroid hormones are derived from [ cholesterol amino acids ].

Quick Quiz #6

On each blank line place the letter that designates the appropriate hormone.

1. The pancreatic islet cells secrete F and I .

2. The ovaries secrete A and N .

3. The anterior pituitary secretes B , E , H , K , L , and R .

4. The thyroid gland secretes S and T .

5. The adrenal cortex secretes C and O .

6. The posterior pituitary secretes J and Q .

7. The adrenal medulla secretes D and P .

8. The testes secrete M .

9. The parathyroid gland secretes G .

A. estrogen

B. ACTH

C. aldosterone

D. epinephrine

E. prolactin

F. glucagon

G. parathormone

H. LH

I. insulin

J. oxytocin

K. growth hormone

L. FSH

M. testosterone

N. progesterone

O. cortisol

P. norepinephrine

Q. ADH

R. TSH

S. thyroxine

T. calcitonin

Quick Quiz #7

On each blank line place the letter that designates the appropriate target organ. Letters can be used more than once.

1. estrogen / progesterone E

2. ACTH G

3. aldosterone H

4. epinephrine / norepinephrine A

5. prolactin F

6. glucagon K

7. parathormone B

8. LH / FSH L

9. insulin A

10. oxytocin E

11. growth hormone A

12. testosterone C

13. cortisol A

14. ADH H

15. TSH D

16. thyroxine A

17. calcitonin B

A. all cells in the body

B. bones

C. male body

D. thyroid gland

E. uterus

F. mammary glands

G. adrenal cortex

H. kidneys

I. female body

J. testes

K. liver

L. ovaries and testes

Quick Quiz #8

On each blank line place the letter that designates the appropriate effect in the body.

1. estrogen K

2. ACTH E

3. aldosterone Q

4. epinephrine / nonepinephine N

5. prolactin A

6. glucagon H

7. parathormone S

8. LH L

9. insulin R

10. oxytocin B

11. growth hormone G

12. testosterone D

13. cortisol C

14. ADH J

15. TSH O

16. thyroxine F

17. FSH P

18. progesterone M

19. calcitonin I

A. production of breast milk

B. contract uterus, releases breast milk

C. causes gluconeogenesis, increases blood glucose levels

D. maintains male sex characteristics

E. causes release of hormones from adrenal cortex

F. increases body metabolism

G. growth of the body

H. breakdown of glycogen, increases blood glucose levels

I. builds bone, decreases blood calcium

J. causes kidneys to retain water

K. maintains female sex characteristics, builds uterine lining

L. releases testosterone in male, forms corpus luteum in female

M. maintains and enhances uterine lining

N. prolongs and enhances “fight or flight” response

O. causes thyroid gland to release thyroxine

P. causes spermatogenesis in male, oogenesis in female

Q. causes kidney to retain sodium

R. allows cells to take up glucose, decreases blood glucose levels

S. breaks down bone, increases blood calcium

Quick Quiz #9

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. [ Red blood cells White blood cells ] function in the immune system.

2. Hemoglobin contains iron and can bind oxygen .

3. C

4. B-cells make antibodies .

5. Insufficient iron in the diet leads to insufficient hemoglobin and the disease anemia .

6. [ Killer Helper ] T-cells are T-cells that help B-cells and other T-cells reproduce.

7. T-cells are [ white red ] blood cells.

8. Blood cells involved in blood clotting are called platelets .

9. B

Genetics Questions

Practice Question 1: A man with blood type AB marries a woman who is homozygous for blood type A (genotype I^AI^A). What is the probability they will produce a child with blood type B?

The man with blood type AB has the genotype I^AI^B. The woman”s genotype is given (I^AI^A). Let”s construct a Punnett square:

There are only two possible genotypes for their children: I^AI^A and I^AI^B. I^AI^A corresponds to blood type A, and I^AI^B coresponds to blood type AB, so the probability of producing a child with blood type B is 0%.

Practice Question 2: Which blood type(s) are NOT possible from a cross between a person with blood type AB and a person heterozygous for blood type B ( I^Bi)?

A person with blood type AB has the genotype I^AI^B. The heterozygous genotype for blood type B is given as I^Bi. Let”s construct a Punnett square:

The possible genotypes of their children are I^AI^B (blood type AB), I^Ai (blood type A), and I^Bi (blood type B). The only blood type not resulting from this cross is blood type O (genotype ii).

Practice Question 3: Could a woman with blood type B and a man with blood type A produce a child with blood type O?

Yes. A woman with blood type B could have one of the following genotypes: I^BI^B or I^Bi. A man with blood type A could have one of the following genotypes: I^AI^A or I^Ai. Blood type O can only result from the genotype ii, and that genotype could result from a cross between I^Bi (type B) and I^Ai (type A) individuals. Here”s the Punnett square:

Quick Quiz #10

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. The genotype(s) for blood type O is (are) ii .

2. Blood type AB is sometimes called the [ universal donor universal recipient ].

3. Blood type A can receive blood from blood type (s) A and O .

4. Blood type B can donate blood to blood type(s) B and AB .

5. The probability of a man homozygous for blood type B and a woman homozygous for blood type A producing a child with blood type A is [ 0% 25% 50% 75% 100% ].

6. The genotype(s) for blood type A is (are) I^AI^A and I^Ai .

7. Blood type AB can donate blood to blood type [ AB A B O all of them ].

8. Alleles I^A and I^B are said to be codominant .

Quick Quiz #11

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. [ Veins Capillaries Arteries ] are blood vessels that return blood to the heart.

2. Lymphatic vessels return excess tissue fluid to the blood vessels.

3. The type of blood being carried [ does does not ] matter when determining whether a blood vessel is an artery or a vein.

4. Blood pressure in the veins is [ high low ].

5. Blood pressure in the arteries is [ high low ].

6. Blood flow in the capillaries is [ fast slow ].

7. [ Lymph nodes Lymph vessels ] filter potentially harmful things from the lymph before it is returned to the veins.

8. The diameter of an artery is [ larger smaller ] than the combined diameters of the capillaries.

9. Lymphatic vessels [ do do not ] have valves.

10. Blood moves through the veins and lymph moves through the lymphatic vessels when nearby skeletal muscles contract and squeeze the vessels.

Quick Quiz #12

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. Blood leaves the heart from [ ventricles atria ] and enters the heart at [ ventricles atria ].

2. The aorta carries [ oxygen-rich oxygen-poor ] blood [ away from toward ] the heart, and the two vena cavae carry [ oxygen-rich oxygen-poor ] blood [ away from toward ] the heart.

3. B

4. The capillaries are the site of exchange between blood and tissue.

5. The pulmonary arteries carry [ oxygen-rich oxygen-poor ] blood [ away from toward ] the heart, and the pulmonary veins carry [ oxygen-rich oxygen-poor ] blood [ away from toward ] the heart.

6. Blood that enters the right atrium after touring the entire body is [ oxygen-rich oxygen-poor ].

7. The [ semilunar atrioventricular ] valves separate the ventricles from the arteries.

8. E

9. Moving air into and out of the lungs is called ventilation .

10. The [ pulmonary systemic ] circuit sends blood to the lungs.

11. The respiratory zone of the lungs is where gas exchange takes place.

12. The first heart sound is the closing of the [ semilunar
atrioventricular ] valves at the [ end beginning ] of heart contraction.

13. From the right ventricle [ oxygen-rich oxygen-poor ] blood is passed to the [ pulmonary arteries pulmonary veins ] and then to the lungs.

14. The larynx is part of the [ conduction respiratory ] zone.

15. Oxygen-rich blood enters the heart at the left atrium .

16. Blood gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) are [ hydrophilic hydrophobic ].

Quick Quiz #13

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is carried as carbonic acid and bicarbonate .

2. If your blood is too acidic, your pH is [ higher lower ] and you will breathe [ slower faster ].

3. The system that can change pH more quickly is the [ respiratory renal ] system.

4. The primary muscle of respiration is the diaphragm .

5. Breath rate is adjusted by the medulla oblongata .

6. When the diaphragm contracts it [ curves upward flattens downward ].

7. Normal blood pH is approximately 7.4 .

8. When the chest cavity gets smaller, air in the lungs rushes [ inward outward ].

Quick Quiz #14

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. The pancreas is [ part of the alimentary canal an accessory organ ].

2. The order of the organs in the alimentary canal is mouth , esophagus , stomach , small_intestine , large intestine .

3. The stomach [ does does not ] secrete a digestive enzyme.

4. The salivary glands secrete an enzyme called [ pepsin amylase ] that helps in the digestion of [ carbohydrates proteins ].

5. The colon is the [ small large ] intestine.

6. The vitamin needed for blood clotting is vitamin K , and it is made by bacteria in the [ small large ] intestine.

7. D

8. A

9. The stomach is [ alkaline acidic ], which means that its pH is [ low high ].

10. The pancreas produces [ bicarbonate bile ].

11. The function of the large intestine is to reabsorb water .

12. Vitamin C is necessary to make [ collagen retinal ].

13. Pepsin is an enzyme , secreted by the stomach . It helps in the digestion of proteins .

14. Bile [ digests emulsifies ] fats.

15. The liver produces proteins and regulates glycogen metabolism.

Quick Quiz #15

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. The three processes used by the nephron to make urine are filtration , reabsorption , and secretion .

2. The [ loop of Henle collecting duct ] sets up a concentration gradient in the medulla.

3. [ Secretion Reabsorption ] means taking a substance from the urine and returning it to the blood.

4. Glucose is always [ secreted reabsorbed ].

5. The kidney helps to regulate blood pressure by releasing [ aldosterone renin ].

6. The [ ureter urethra ] carries urine from the bladder to the outside of the body.

7. Filtration occurs at the glomerulus .

8. ADH increases the amount of [ water sodium ] reabsorbed from filtrate.

9. Most reabsorption and secretion occur in the proximal convoluted tubule .

10. ADH levels are [ high low ] when the body is dehydrated, and this causes the urine to be [ dilute concentrated ].

11. The three main waste products found in urine are urea , uric acid , and creatinine .

Quick Quiz #16

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. Smooth muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs .

2. The deepest layer of the skin is the [ dermis epidermis hypodermis ].

3. Spiders have [ exoskeletons endoskeletons ].

4. The two proteins found in muscle cell sarcomeres are actin and myosin .

5. When the body gets too warm, dermal blood vessels [ constrict dilate ], and shivering [ is initiated stops ].

6. Muscles are attached to bones by [ ligaments tendons ].

7. In a sarcomere, [ actin myosin ] attaches to the Z-lines.

8. The neurotransmitter used to stimulate muscle contraction is acetylcholine .

9. [ Cardiac Skeletal ] muscle is voluntary (under conscious control).

10. Bones are attached to other bones by [ ligaments tendons ].

11. Cardiac muscle is found in [ the heart only both the heart and the blood vessels ].

Quick Quiz #17

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. Progesterone is secreted during the [ secretory luteal ] phase of the ovarian cycle.

2. C

3. The ovary is controlled by [ FSH and LH estrogen and progesterone ] from the anterior pituitary, and it secretes [ FSH and LH estrogen and progesterone ] that affect the uterus.

4. hCG prolongs the life of the corpus luteum if fertilization and implantation occur.

5. The vas deferens is a large duct that conducts sperm from the testes to the urethra.

6. A surge in [ FSH LH ] causes ovulation.

7. The remnants of a follicle after ovulation become the corpus luteum .

8. [ Estrogen Progesterone ] causes the uterine lining to grow during the proliferative phase.

9. Semen is a nourishing fluid that carries sperm. It is secreted by glands in the male reproductive system.

10. Estrogen causes growth of the uterine lining during the [ proliferative follicular ] phase of the uterine cycle.

11. D

Quick Quiz #18

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. B

2. D

3. The human eye develops from [ mesoderm ectoderm ].

4. Blood vessels develop from [ endoderm mesoderm ].

5. C

6. The membrane that most directly surrounds the embryo is the [ chorion amnion ].

7. Organogenesis occurs during [ neurulation gastrulation ].

8. Implantation occurs [ before after ] cleavage.

9. A blastocyst forms [ before after ] a morula.

10. Neurulation occurs [ before after ] the fetal stage.

11. The acrosome is the region at the top of the sperm that contains digestive enzymes to help the sperm penetrate the ovum.

12. The nervous system develops from [ endoderm ectoderm ].

13. The kidneys develop from [ mesoderm endoderm ].

CHAPTER 12

Quick Quiz #1

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. The inner fluid of the chloroplast is called [ grana stroma ].

2. The layer of wax on the leaf surface is called the cuticle .

3. Most photosynthesis occurs in the [ palisade layer spongy layer ].

4. The Calvin cycle is a series of [ light-dependent light-independent ] reactions.

5. Oxygen is released during the [ light-dependent light-independent ] reactions.

6. The light-dependent reactions convert solar energy to usable energy, namely ATP and NADPH .

7. The thylakoids are the membranes inside the chloroplast where the light-dependent reactions take place.

8. Plants are [ autotrophs heterotrophs ] and [ can cannot ] make their own food.

9. Stomates are opened and closed by cells called guard cells .

10. Forming carbohydrate from carbon dioxide is also known as carbon fixation .

Quick Quiz #2

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. The female part of a flower is the [ stamen pistil ].

2. The tissue within plant veins that carries water from the roots up to the rest of the plant is the [ phloem xylem ].

3. The specific cells that transport water are the tracheids and the vessel elements .

4. The ovary develops into a [ fruit seed ].

5. The polar bodies, when fertilized, become a nutrient-rich tissue called endosperm .

6. Phloem is the type of tissue that carries food from photosynthesis in the leaves to the rest of the plant.

7. The specific cells that transport food are the [ companion cells sieve cells ].

8. The anther and the filament are [ male female ] parts of the flower.

9. In a flowering plant, pollen is produced by and located on the [ stigma anther ].

10. The [ seed fruit ] develops from the ovule.

11. A pollen tube grows down through the [ stigma style ].

CHAPTER 13

Quick Quiz #1

1. D A dog learns that if it brings the newspaper into the house each evening it gets a bone.

2. B A bird treats the human it saw when it first hatched as its mother.

3. A A frog squeezes the swollen belly of a female frog to release eggs.

4. D A cockroach learns to run from light because every time a light comes on someone tries to step on it.

5. E A man wishes to turn a screw and, having no screwdriver, realizes that he can use the edge of dull knife as a substitute.

6. C A cat runs into the kitchen and looks for food when it hears the electric can opener.

7. A A bird puffs up its brightly colored chest to attract a mate.

Quick Quiz #2

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. A chemical released that causes an organism”s own heart rate to increase is an example of a [ pheromone hormone ].

2. Roots growing toward the earth is described as [ positive negative ] gravitropism.

3. A rooster crowing in the morning is an example of a circadian rhythm.

4. A fruit tree flowering in the spring is an example of a seasonal rhythm.

5. Growth of a plant toward light is called phototropism .

6. Bacteria that release chemicals to draw other bacteria toward a food source are releasing [ pheromones hormones ].

7. Athlete”s foot is the common name that describes a fungal infection of the skin of the feet, especially between the toes. The skin becomes cracked and sore. This is an example of a [ mutualistic commensalistic parasitic ] relationship.

8. Epiphytes are small plants that grow on the branches of big trees. The epiphytes are exposed to sunlight, and the big tree is neither helped nor harmed. This is an example of a [ mutualistic commensalistic parasitic ] relationship.

9. Any two organisms living in an intimate association with each other are said to be in a symbiotic relationship.

10. An ivy growing along a trellis is an example of thigmotropism .

CHAPTER 14

Quick Quiz #1

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. D

2. A

3. C

4. Members of the same community are also members of the same [ population ecosystem ].

5. Alternate evolution of two interacting species is called coevolution .

6. Individuals [ can cannot ] evolve.

7. Hawks and wolves hunting the same population of rabbits is an example of [ competition predation both of these ].

Quick Quiz #2

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. Herbivores eat the [ primary consumers primary producers ].

2. Organisms that feed off dead and decaying material are called decomposers .

3. Primary producers are [ autotrophs heterotrophs ].

4. There are more [ primary producers primary consumers ].

5. The least amounts of energy is available at the [ bottom top ] of the food chain.

6. Organisms that eat both plants and animals are called omnivores .

7. Decomposers include both bacteria and fungi .

8. An herbivore is a(n) [ autotroph heterotroph ].

9. In a food chain consisting of grass, grasshoppers, frogs, and bass, grasshoppers are [ more less ] numerous than frogs, and frogs are [ more less ] numerous than bass.

Quick Quiz #3

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. When a plant community begins on a barren rock, the first organism to colonize the rock is most often [ lichen moss ].

2. In an ecological succession, each new plant community in an area [ coexists with replaces ] the previous plant community.

3. The final community in ecological succession is called the climax community.

4. Gradual, unpredictable change in plants that occurs over millions of years is called [ ecological succession evolution ].

5. The pioneer organism is the one that first appears as the founder of a biological community.

6. The final plant community in ecological succession is made up primarily of deciduous trees .

Quick Quiz #4

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. D

2. Water and chemical nutrients are classified as [ biotic abiotic ] elements of an ecosystem.

3. D

4. Nitrogen is converted into usable forms in the soil by bacteria .

5. Carbon is returned to the atmosphere by [ photosynthesis respiration ] and removed from the atmosphere by [ photosynthesis respiration ].

6. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria live in root nodules of legumes .

Quick Quiz #5

Fill in the blanks and check the appropriate boxes:

1. The tropical rain forest has [ greater lesser ] biological diversity than the tundra.

2. The biome characterized by large numbers of evergreen conifers is the taiga .

3. The primary plant forms of the [ taiga tundra desert ] are mosses, lichen, and wildflowers.

4. The ocean floor is known as the benthic zone.

5. Animals with adaptations for a dry environment would live in the [ savanna desert ].

6. The deepest zone of the ocean is the [ abyssal zone pelagic zone ].

7. Permanently frozen soil is a characteristic of tundra .

8. The biome with very fertile soil and many herbivores is the grassland .

9. Deer, bears, and raccoon are found in the [ tundra rain forest deciduous forest ], whereas caribou and moose are found in the [ tundra rain forest deciduous forest ].

10. Deciduous trees [ do do not ] lose their leaves during cold seasons.

11. Phytoplankton would thrive well in the [ limnetic zone profundal zone ].

12. Succulent plants are well suited to [ savanna desert ].

13. Areas of water where light does not penetrate are known as aphotic zones.

14. The most northern biome is the [ taiga tundra ].

15. The tundra [ does does not ] grow many trees.

16. Coral reefs can typically be found in the [ intertidal zone neritic zone ].