Practice SAT Chemistry Subject Test 2 - Practice SAT Chemistry Subject Tests and Answers and Explanations - Cracking the SAT Chemistry Subject Test

Cracking the SAT Chemistry Subject Test

Part IV

Practice SAT Chemistry Subject
Tests and Answers and Explanations

Chapter 17

Practice SAT Chemistry Subject Test 2



Click here to download a PDF of the Practice SAT Chemistry Subject Test 2.

PRACTICE SAT CHEMISTRY SUBJECT TEST 2

You are about to take the second practice SAT Chemistry Subject Test.

After answering questions 1–23, which constitute Part A, you'll be directed to answer questions 101–116, which constitute Part B. Then, begin again at question 24. Questions 24–69 constitute Part C.

When you're ready to score yourself, refer to the scoring instructions and answer key on this page. Full explanations regarding the correct answers to all questions start on this page.

CHEMISTRY SUBJECT TEST

MATERIAL IN THE FOLLOWING TABLE MAY BE USEFUL IN ANSWERING THE QUESTIONS IN THIS EXAMINATION.

Click here to see full page view

CHEMISTRY SUBJECT TEST 2

Note: For all questions involving solutions and/or chemical equations, assume that the system is in pure water unless otherwise stated.

Part A

Directions: Each set of lettered choices below refers to the numbered statements or questions immediately following it. Select the one lettered choice that best fits each statement or answers each question, and then fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. A choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all in each set.

Questions 1–4 refer to the following.

(A) Molarity

(B) Molality

(C) Mole fraction

(D) Density

(E) Partial pressure

1. Is measured in units of atmospheres or millimeters of mercury

2. Is measured in units of moles/kilogram

3. Is a measure of mass per unit volume

4. Is the quantity used in the calculation of boiling point elevation

Questions 5–9 refer to the following.

(A) Hydrogen bonding

(B) Ionic bonding

(C) Network bonding

(D) London dispersion force

(E) Metallic bonding

5. Chiefly responsible for the relatively high boiling point of water

6. Is present in liquid oxygen

7. Is primarily responsible for the hardness of diamond

8. Allows copper to conduct electricity

9. Is present in solid KCl

Questions 10–13 refer to the following.

(A) Na+

(B) Al

(C) F

(D) Ti

(E) Br

10. Has 7 valence electrons

11. Has the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p1

12. Has the same electron configuration as a neon atom

13. Has valence electrons in d orbitals

Questions 14–17 refer to the following.

(A) A 0.01-molar solution of HNO3

(B) A 0.01-molar solution of HC2H3O2

(C) A 0.01-molar solution of Cu(NO3)2

(D) A 0.01-molar solution of NaNO3

(E) A 0.01-molar solution of NaOH

14. Will be colored blue

15. Will have a pH of 2

16. Will have the lowest freezing point

17. Will contain undissociated aqueous particles

Questions 18–20 refer to the following.

(A) Enthalpy change

(B) Entropy change

(C) Gibbs free energy change

(D) Activation energy

(E) Specific heat capacity

18. Is the amount of energy that must be added to raise the temperature of 1 gram of a substance 1°C

19. Its value indicates the spontaneity of a reaction

20. Its value indicates whether a reaction is endothermic or exothermic

Questions 21–23 refer to the following.

(A) Ionization energy

(B) Electronegativity

(C) Atomic radius

(D) Atomic number

(E) Mass number

21. Is the measure of the pull of the nucleus of an atom on the electrons of other atoms bonded to it

22. Is the energy required to remove an electron from an atom

23. Is equal to the number of protons in an atom

PLEASE GO TO THE SPECIAL SECTION LABELED CHEMISTRY AT THE LOWER RIGHT-HAND CORNER OF THE ANSWER SHEET YOU ARE WORKING ON AND ANSWER QUESTIONS 101–116 ACCORDING TO THE FOLLOWING DIRECTIONS.

Part B

Directions: Each question below consists of two statements, I in the left-hand column and II in the right-hand column. For each question, determine whether statement I is true or false and whether statement II is true or false, and fill in the corresponding T or F ovals on your answer sheet.Fill in oval CE only if statement II is a correct explanation of statement I.

101.

102.

103.

104.

105.

106.

107.

108.

109.

110.

111.

112.

113.

114.

115.

116.

RETURN TO THE SECTION OF YOUR ANSWER SHEET YOU STARTED FOR CHEMISTRY AND ANSWER QUESTIONS 24–69.

Part C

Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or completions. Select the one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

24. What is the oxidation state of bromine in HBrO3?

(A) –3

(B) –1

(C) +1

(D) +3

(E) +5

25. What is the percent by mass of silicon in a sample of silicon dioxide?

(A) 21%

(B) 33%

(C) 47%

(D) 54%

(E) 78%

26. How many electrons does a 37Cl ion with a charge of –1 contain?

(A) 16

(B) 17

(C) 18

(D) 37

(E) 38

CH4(g) + 2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2 H2O(g) + 800 kJ

27. If 1 mole of O2(g) is consumed in the reaction given above, how much energy is produced?

(A) 200 kJ

(B) 400 kJ

(C) 800 kJ

(D) 1,200 kJ

(E) 1,600 kJ

28. Which of the following is NOT true of the element sodium?

(A) It takes the oxidation state +1.

(B) It reacts with water to form a basic solution.

(C) It forms metallic bonds in its solid uncombined form.

(D) It is found in nature as a diatomic gas.

(E) It reacts with a halogen to form an ionic salt.

29. What volume of a 0.200-molar solution of sodium hydroxide is required to neutralize 40 liters of a 0.300-molar hydrochloric acid solution?

(A) 10 liters

(B) 20 liters

(C) 40 liters

(D) 60 liters

(E) 120 liters

…PH3 +…O2 →…P2O5 +…H2O

30. When the equation above is balanced and the coefficients are reduced to the lowest whole numbers, the coefficient for H2O is

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

(E) 5

H2SO4(aq) + Ba(OH)2(aq) →

31. Which of the following are products of the reaction shown above?

I. O2(g)

II. H2O(l)

III. BaSO4(s)

(A) I only

(B) III only

(C) I and II only

(D) I and III only

(E) II and III only

2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s)

32. If 48.6 grams of magnesium are placed in a container with 64 grams of oxygen gas and the reaction above proceeds to completion, what is the mass of MgO(s) produced?

(A) 15.4 grams

(B) 32.0 grams

(C) 80.6 grams

(D) 96.3 grams

(E) 112 grams

33. An ideal gas in a closed inflexible container has a pressure of 6 atmospheres and a temperature of 27°C. What will be the new pressure of the gas if the temperature is decreased to –73°C?

(A) 2 atm

(B) 3 atm

(C) 4 atm

(D) 8 atm

(E) 9 atm

34. Equal molar quantities of hydrogen gas and oxygen gas are present in a closed container at a constant temperature. Which of the following quantities will be the same for the two gases?

I. Partial pressure

II. Average kinetic energy

III. Average molecular velocity

(A) I only

(B) I and II only

(C) I and III only

(D) II and III only

(E) I, II, and III

35. Which of the following is a nonpolar molecule?

(A) CO2

(B) H2O

(C) NH3

(D) NO

(E) HI

36. What is the molar concentration of a 500-milliliter solution that contains 20 grams of CaBr2 (formula weight = 200)?

(A) 0.1 molar

(B) 0.2 molar

(C) 0.5 molar

(D) 1 molar

(E) 5 molar

37. The structure of BeCl2 can best be described as

(A) linear

(B) bent

(C) trigonal

(D) tetrahedral

(E) square

2 NO(g) + 2 H2(g) → N2(g) + 2 H2O(g)

38. Which of the following statements is true regarding the reaction given above?

(A) If 1 mole of H2 is consumed, 0.5 mole of N2 is produced.

(B) If 1 mole of H2 is consumed, 0.5 mole of H2O is produced.

(C) If 0.5 mole of H2 is consumed, 1 mole of N2 is produced.

(D) If 0.5 mole of H2 is consumed, 1 mole of NO is consumed.

(E) If 0.5 mole of H2 is consumed, 1 mole of H2O is produced.

Questions 39–40 pertain to the reaction represented by the following equation.

…Cu(s) +…NO3(aq) +…H+(aq) →…Cu2+(aq) +…NO2(g) +…H2O(l)

39. When the equation above is balanced with lowest whole number coefficients, the coefficient for H+(aq) will be

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

(E) 5

40. Which of the following takes place during the reaction above?

(A) Cu(s) is oxidized.

(B) Cu(s) is reduced.

(C) H+(aq) is oxidized.

(D) H+(aq) is reduced.

(E) NO3(aq) is oxidized.

41. Which of the following could be the molecular formula for a molecule with an empirical formula of CH2?

(A) CH

(B) CH4

(C) C2H2

(D) C2H6

(E) C3H6

42. When CO2 is bubbled through distilled water at 25°C, which of the following is most likely to occur?

(A) Solid carbon will precipitate.

(B) An electrical current will be produced in an oxidation-reduction reaction.

(C) The pH of the solution will be reduced.

(D) The water will boil.

(E) Methane (CH4) gas will be formed.

43. In which of the following processes is entropy increasing?

(A) N2(g) + 3 Cl2(g) → 2 NCl3(g)

(B) H2O(g) → H2O(l)

(C) 2 H2O(l) → 2 H2(g) + O2(g)

(D) CO(g) + 2 H2(g) → CH3OH(l)

(E) 2 NO2(g) → N2O4(g)

44. Based on the phase diagram above, which series of phase changes could take place as pressure is decreased at a constant temperature?

(A) Solid to liquid to gas

(B) Solid to gas to liquid

(C) Gas to liquid to solid

(D) Gas to solid to liquid

(E) Liquid to gas to solid

45. Which of the following forms of radioactive decay has (have) no electrical charge?

I. Alpha decay

II. Beta decay

III. Gamma decay

(A) II only

(B) III only

(C) I and II only

(D) I and III only

(E) II and III only

46. Based on the solubility products given below, which of the following salts is the most soluble?

(A) BaCO3 Ksp = 5.1 × 10–9

(B) PbCrO4 Ksp = 2.8 × 10–13

(C) AgCl Ksp = 1.8 × 10–10

(D) CaSO4 Ksp = 9.1 × 10–6

(E) ZnC2O4 Ksp = 2.7 × 10–8

HCN(aq) → H+(aq) + CN(aq)

47. Hydrocyanic acid dissociates according to the reaction given above. Which of the following expressions is equal to the acid dissociation constant for HCN?

(A) [H+][CN]

(B) [H+][CN][HCN]

(C)

(D)

(E)

48. The reaction progress diagram of an uncatalyzed reaction is shown by the solid line. Which dotted line presents the same reaction in the presence of a catalyst?

49. In a hydrogen atom, when an electron jumps from an excited energy state to a more stable energy state,

(A) electromagnetic radiation is emitted by the atom

(B) electromagnetic radiation is absorbed by the atom

(C) the atom becomes a positively charged ion

(D) the atom becomes a negatively charged ion

(E) the atom undergoes nuclear decay

Questions 50–52 pertain to the following situation.

A closed 5-liter vessel contains a sample of neon gas. The temperature inside the container is 25°C, and the pressure is 1.5 atmospheres. (The gas constant, R, is equal to 0.08 L•atm/mol•K.)

50. Which of the following expressions is equal to the molar quantity of gas in the sample?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

51. If the neon gas in the vessel is replaced with an equal molar quantity of helium gas, which of the following properties of the gas in the container will be changed?

I. Pressure

II. Temperature

III. Density

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) III only

(D) I and II only

(E) II and III only

52. The volume of the vessel was gradually changed while temperature was held constant until the pressure was measured at 1.6 atmospheres. Which of the following expressions is equal to the new volume?

(A) 5.0 × liters

(B) 5.0 × liters

(C) 25 × liters

(D) 0.08 × liters

(E) 0.08 × liters

53. An oxidation-reduction reaction takes place in a chemical cell, and the flow of electrons is used to provide energy for a lightbulb. Which of the following statements is true of the reaction?

(A) The reaction is nonspontaneous and has a positive voltage.

(B) The reaction is nonspontaneous and has a negative voltage.

(C) The reaction is at equilibrium and has a voltage of zero.

(D) The reaction is spontaneous and has a positive voltage.

(E) The reaction is spontaneous and has a negative voltage.

54. A solution containing which of the following pairs of species could be a buffer?

(A) H+ and Cl

(B) H2CO3 and HCO3

(C) Na+ and NO3

(D) Na+ and OH

(E) HNO3 and NO3

55. Which of the following species is the conjugate acid of ammonia (NH3)?

(A) N2

(B) H2

(C) NH2

(D) NH2

(E) NH4+

56. A solution of H2SO3 is found to have a hydrogen ion concentration of 1 × 10–3 molar at 25°C. What is the hydroxide ion concentration in the solution?

(A) 1 × 10–13 molar

(B) 1 × 10–11 molar

(C) 1 × 10–7 molar

(D) 1 × 10–4 molar

(E) 1 × 10–3 molar

57. Which of the following expressions is equal to the number of iron (Fe) atoms present in a pure sample of solid iron with a mass of 10 grams? (The atomic mass of iron is 55.9.)

(A) (10.0)(55.9)(6.02 × 1023) atoms

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

58. A radioactive material is undergoing nuclear decay. After 40 minutes, 25 percent of the sample remains. What is the half-life of the sample?

(A) 10 minutes

(B) 20 minutes

(C) 40 minutes

(D) 80 minutes

(E) 160 minutes

Element

First Ionization Energy (kJ/mol)

Lithium

520

Sodium

496

Rubidium

403

Cesium

376

59. Based on the table above, which of the following is most likely to be the first ionization energy for potassium?

(A) 536 kJ/mol

(B) 504 kJ/mol

(C) 419 kJ/mol

(D) 391 kJ/mol

(E) 358 kJ/mol

Questions 60–62 pertain to the reaction represented by the following equation.

2 NOCl(g) 2 NO(g) + Cl2(g)

60. Which of the following expressions gives the equilibrium constant for the reaction above?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

61. Which of the following changes to the equilibrium above would serve to decrease the concentration of Cl2?

I. The addition of NOCl(g) to the reaction vessel

II. The addition of NO(g) to the reaction vessel

III. A decrease in the volume of the reaction vessel

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) I and II only

(D) I and III only

(E) II and III only

62. Which of the following is true of the reaction above as it proceeds in the forward direction?

(A) NO(g) is produced at the same rate that NOCl(g) is consumed.

(B) NO(g) is produced at half the rate that NOCl(g) is consumed.

(C) NO(g) is produced at twice the rate that NOCl(g) is consumed.

(D) Cl2(g) is produced at the same rate that NOCl(g) is consumed.

(E) Cl2(g) is produced at twice the rate that NOCl(g) is consumed.

63. Which of the following is an organic molecule?

(A) SiO2

(B) NH3

(C) H2O

(D) CH4

(E) BeF2

64. The graph above represents the titration of a strong acid with a strong base. Which of the points shown on the graph indicates the equivalence point in the titration?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

(E) E

65. Which of the following statements about fluorine is NOT true?

(A) It is the most electronegative element.

(B) It contains 19 protons in its nucleus.

(C) Its compounds can engage in hydrogen bonding.

(D) It takes the oxidation state –1.

(E) It is found in nature as a diatomic gas.

66. The reactivity and chemical behavior of an atom is governed by many factors. The most important factor is

(A) the number of protons in the atom's nucleus

(B) the number of neutrons in the atom's nucleus

(C) the number of protons and neutrons in the atom's nucleus

(D) the ratio of protons to neutrons in the atom's nucleus

(E) the number of electrons in the atom's valence shell

67. A beaker contains a saturated solution of copper(I) chloride, a slightly soluble salt with a solubility product of 1.2 × 10–6. The addition of which of the salts listed below to the solution would cause the precipitation of copper(I) chloride?

(A) Sodium chloride

(B) Potassium bromide

(C) Silver(I) nitrate

(D) Lead(II) acetate

(E) Magnesium iodide

68. Bromothymol blue is an acid/base indicator with a pKa of 6.8. Therefore, at approximately what pH will bromothymol blue undergo a color change during an acid/base titration?

(A) 1

(B) 3

(C) 5

(D) 7

(E) 13

69. Which of the following is necessarily true of a nonionic substance with a high boiling point?

(A) It has a large vapor pressure.

(B) It has strong intermolecular attractive forces.

(C) It has a low freezing point.

(D) It has a low heat of vaporization.

(E) It will be present in gas phase at very low temperatures.

STOP

If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

HOW TO SCORE THE PRINCETON REVIEW PRACTICE SAT CHEMISTRY SUBJECT TEST

When you take the real exam, the proctors will collect your test booklet and bubble sheet and send your answer sheet to New Jersey, where a computer looks at the pattern of filled-in ovals on your answer sheet and gives you a score. We couldn't include even a small computer with this book, so we are providing this more primitive way of scoring your exam.

Determining Your Score

STEP 1

Using the answer key on the next page, determine how many questions you got right and how many you got wrong on the test. Remember: Questions that you do not answer don't count as either right or wrong answers.

STEP 2

List the number of right answers here.

(A) ________

STEP 3

List the number of wrong answers here. Now divide that number by 4. (Use a calculator if you're feeling particularly lazy.)

(B) ________ ÷ 4 = (C) ________

STEP 4

Subtract the number of wrong answers divided by 4 from the number of correct answers. Round this score to the nearest whole number. This is your raw score.

A) ________ – (C) ________ = ________

STEP 5

To determine your real score, take the number from Step 4 above, and look it up in the left column of the Score Conversion Table on this page; the corresponding score on the right is your score on the exam.

ANSWERS TO THE PRINCETON REVIEW PRACTICE SAT CHEMISTRY SUBJECT TEST 2

THE PRINCETON REVIEW PRACTICE SAT CHEMISTRY SUBJECT TEST SCORE CONVERSION TABLE