1,296 ACT Practice Questions, 3rd Edition (2013)

ACT Practice Test 3

Test 3. Answers and Explanations


  1. D

  2. G

  3. D

  4. H

  5. A

  6. H

  7. D

  8. G

  9. D

10. H

11. A

12. G

13. A

14. G

15. D

16. J

17. C

18. F

19. C

20. H

21. B

22. G

23. D

24. J

25. A

26. F

27. D

28. F

29. B

30. H

31. B

32. H

33. C

34. J

35. C

36. J

37. A

38. J

39. C

40. J

41. C

42. F

43. C

44. G

45. D

46. J

47. C

48. J

49. B

50. J

51. A

52. G

53. C

54. F

55. B

56. F

57. C

58. H

59. D

60. G

61. D

62. G

63. C

64. J

65. C

66. H

67. A

68. G

69. D

70. J

71. B

72. H

73. B

74. F

75. A


  1. D

  2. G

  3. B

  4. K

  5. B

  6. G

  7. E

  8. G

  9. C

10. H

11. D

12. F

13. B

14. H

15. E

16. G

17. D

18. K

19. C

20. H

21. E

22. J

23. E

24. H

25. D

26. K

27. D

28. G

29. B

30. J

31. D

32. F

33. D

34. G

35. E

36. F

37. E

38. F

39. C

40. H

41. B

42. J

43. D

44. H

45. E

46. G

47. E

48. G

49. B

50. J

51. B

52. G

53. A

54. H

55. E

56. F

57. D

58. J

59. C

60. G


  1. A

  2. H

  3. D

  4. H

  5. C

  6. H

  7. A

  8. G

  9. D

10. F

11. A

12. J

13. A

14. H

15. C

16. J

17. D

18. J

19. B

20. H

21. A

22. G

23. C

24. H

25. C

26. J

27. B

28. H

29. A

30. H

31. D

32. G

33. B

34. F

35. C

36. H

37. D

38. F

39. C

40. H


  1. C

  2. F

  3. B

  4. G

  5. D

  6. G

  7. A

  8. H

  9. A

10. G

11. C

12. J

13. D

14. H

15. D

16. G

17. D

18. H

19. A

20. J

21. B

22. H

23. A

24. H

25. D

26. H

27. A

28. J

29. B

30. G

31. C

32. G

33. C

34. G

35. D

36. J

37. C

38. F

39. C

40. G


Step A

Count the number of correct answers for each section and record the number in the space provided for your raw score on the Score Conversion Worksheet below.

Step B

Using the Score Conversion Chart on the next page, convert your raw scores on each section to scaled scores. Then compute your composite ACT score by averaging the four subject scores. Add them up and divide by four. Don’t worry about the essay score; it is not included in your composite score.

Score Conversion Worksheet


Raw Score

Scaled Score














  1.  D  The phrase just like introduces a comparison to preparing a meal, which means the correct answer must also start with an -ing word to compare two like items, eliminating choices (B) and (C). Choice (D) is a better answer than (A) because it is more concise.

  2.  G  Choice (G) addresses the writer’s goal by describing the robust aromas and provides sensory detail of swirling rush. Choices (F), (H), and (J) do not describe the richness of smell.

  3.  D  Don’t be fooled by the stuff in between! Cooking, one activity, is the subject of the underlined plural verb require, so you need the singular form of the verb. This means you can eliminate choices (A) and (C). Choice (D) is more concise than choice (B).

  4.  H  In EXCEPT/LEAST/NOT questions, the underlined portion of the sentence is correct. All the choices use correct prepositions for going to the store, except choice (H) which implies that Eric is attacking the store.

  5.  A  Two things caused the vegetables to be tasty: natural sunshine and the farmers’ careful tending, which should be separated by and, eliminating choices (B) and (D). To be consistent, the two causes should both be introduced with the preposition of making choice (A) the best answer. The comma preceding and in choice (C) is not necessary because it doesn’t separate two complete thoughts.

  6.  H  Choice (H) describes how Eric precisely cuts his vegetables and arranges the vegetables in layers. Just because Eric slowly places the vegetables does not necessarily mean he is paying attention to detail, eliminating choice (F). Choices (G) and (J) are weaker descriptions, because pours is less meticulous than layers and kind of order is vague.

  7.  D  Commas cannot join two complete ideas. Because the first half of the sentence is complete, the underlined phrase must begin an incomplete thought, eliminating choices (A) and (B). Choice (C) is the wrong form of the verb for adding an incomplete, descriptive thought: alternating is the correct form, which is choice (D).

  8.  G  Since you’re comparing people, Eric to many cooks, the best answer is choice (G). Choice (F) confuses the phrases like and as with, creating an incorrect idiomatic expression. A verb needs to immediately follow as in order to compare Eric’s actions to those of many cooks, eliminating choices (H), which doesn’t have a verb, and (J), which has the verb do in the wrong place.

  9.  D  In EXCEPT/LEAST/NOT questions, the underlined portion of the sentence is correct. In the original sentence, the phrase At this point introduces the next step in a sequence of actions. Choices (A), (B), and (C) all indicate what Eric is going to do after splashing red wine into the cooker. Choice (D) is the incorrect expression, confusing at least with at last.

10.  H  Choice (H) adds detail to help readers visualize what the roast looks like as the pot heats up. Choices (F), (G), and (J) describe the slow rise in temperature, but provides no sensory detail.

11.  A  Choice (A) is the most concise answer, as choices (B), (C), and (D) add words but not any additional information.

12.  G  The introductory phrase Every half hour must be followed by a comma, and the incomplete idea using a long meat thermometer must also be followed by a comma to link it to the complete idea, Eric reads the temperature…Choice (G) is the only option that provides a pair of commas around this phrase. Choice (F) offsets the wrong phrase using a long, confusing the meaning of the sentence. The lack of commas in choice (H) creates a run-on sentence. Choice (J) uses a semicolon instead of a comma, incorrectly separating an incomplete thought from a complete one.

13.  A  What choice (B) describes is redundancy, which would mean the sentence should be deleted, not kept, so cross this one off. The overall essay describes both Eric and the roast he cooks, so the reasoning in choice (C) is incorrect. You can eliminate choice (D) because the previous paragraph already described the relationship between rising temperature and stewing vegetables. Choice (A) maintains consistent flow and focus within the paragraph and overall essay.

14.  G  Choice (F) incorrectly has a comma separating two complete ideas. You can also eliminate choice (H) because you is inconsistent with the third-person he the author has been using throughout the rest of the essay. Choice (J) has a misplaced modifier, suggesting that the plump meat is lifting itself. Choice (G) is the most clear and consistent answer, describing Eric lifting the meat.

15.  D  Choices (A), (B), and (C) all reiterate what has been already stated in the sentence: that the roast is a work of art. Choice (D) is the most concise answer.

16.  J  Choice (J) is the most concise and doesn’t omit necessary information. Choices (F), (G), and (H) make the sentence wordy and redundant; they describe the speculation that the narrator already mentions (people conjure up an image).

17.  C  In EXCEPT/LEAST/NOT questions, the underlined portion of the sentence is correct. The writer uses to start to introduce his argument about people’s misconceptions of the type of farm he was on. Choices (A), (B), and (D) are acceptable substitutions to achieve the same effect. Choice (C) is unacceptable because the correct expression is For starters, not For start.

18.  F  Choice (F) uses a semicolon to divide the sentence into two complete thoughts. Choices (G), (H), and (J) create run-on sentences.

19.  C  The writer is trying to illustrate the contrast between the unconventional livestock and the conventions expected of a farm that has existed as long as that of her family. Therefore, the phrase is used to emphasize the longevity of the farm. The sentence gives no indication of the narrator’s relationship with her mother (A), nor does it indicate that anything bad is going to happen, (D). The following sentences also discuss the untraditional practices of her family farm, eliminating choice (B).

20.  H  The correct expression to express a person’s assumption is must have not must of, eliminating choices (F) and (G). Choice (J) uses about, which is idiomatically incorrect; therefore, (H) is the best answer.

21.  B  The phrase in fact is unnecessary and should be offset with commas, making choice (B) the best answer. The single comma in choices (A) and (C) creates a disruptive pause within the sentence.

22.  G  Sentences 1 and 2 describe the farm before the introduction of the llamas. Choice (F) interrupts this description. Choice (G) makes it clear that the he referred to in Sentence 3 is the narrator’s great-grandfather. Choices (H) and (J) introduce the narrator’s great-grandfather too late, leaving the reader to wonder who Sentence 3’s he is.

23.  D  In EXCEPT/LEAST/NOT questions, the underlined portion of the sentence is correct. Choices (A) and (C) use appropriate synonyms for the past tense verb beganLiving can replace to live, making choice (B) also acceptable. Choice (D) is incorrect because it uses the wrong verb form begun, which should always be preceded by a helping verb to indicate past perfect tense rather than past tense.

24.  J  In EXCEPT/LEAST/NOT questions, the underlined portion of the sentence is correct. Choices (F), (G), and (H) use appropriate synonyms for after. Without an introductory conjunction, choice (J) creates a run-on sentence.

25.  A  Choice (A) correctly puts the verb in the past perfect tense because the narrator’s expectation came before his realization. Choices (B) and (C) make the action hypothetical by using would. Choice (D) puts the action in the present perfect tense, but the story takes place in the past tense.

26.  F  Choice (F) correctly introduces the topic of school, which is the focus of the remainder of the paragraph. Choices (G), (H), and (J) provide information that strays from the topic of this paragraph.

27.  D  Choice (D) is the most clear and concise answer. Choices (A), (B), and (C) are all too wordy and confusing.

28.  F  Choice (F) makes it clear that she learned from reading textbooks on her own, rather than the instruction from the teacher. Choices (G), (H), and (J) are vague in comparison.

29.  B  Because the habits describe all llamas, the apostrophe should show plural possessive, making choice (B) the best answer. Choice (A) uses the singular possessive. Choices (C) and (D) do not use the possessive form at all.

30.  H  The correct expression is to make a career in farming, making choice (H) the best answer. Choices (G) and (J) would be correct if the expression were make a career out of farming. Choice (F) would be correct if the expression were make a career as a farmer.

31.  B  This can’t be which because it refers to a person, and the portion can’t be omitted because the sentence doesn’t make sense without the relative pronoun; eliminate choices (C) and (D). The question now is whether to use whoor whom. Look at the other parts of the sentence, noticing what you need to connect it to: who/whom spent much of his childhood. You need the subjective who form here. Would you say he spent much of his childhood, or him spent much of his childhood? The best answer is choice (B).

32.  H  Choice (F) can’t work because the following paragraph doesn’t talk about the Civil War. Choice (G) can’t work because the underlined portion is not an unnecessary digression; it’s merely a mention of the Civil War. Choice (J) can’t work because there is no mention in this essay that Chesnutt was a historical writer. Only choice (H) agrees with the main theme of this paragraph, which is a discussion of Chesnutt’s childhood.

33.  C  In EXCEPT/LEAST/NOT questions, the underlined portion of the sentence is correct. Note the differences between what separates the words literature and he in each of the answer choices. Since literature ends a complete thought and he begins a new one, only choices (A), (B), and (D) can work—choice (A) because it has a semicolon separating the two complete thoughts, choice (B) because it has a comma and coordinating conjunction separating the thoughts (as in the original sentence), and choice (D) because it has a period separating the two complete thoughts. Choice (C), however, creates a comma splice, and without a coordinating conjunction (such as and or but), a comma cannot be used to separate two complete thoughts.

34.  J  Because the sentence indicates that action ended with the author’s death in 1932, the underlined verb must be in the past tense, which only choice (J) is.

35.  C  Since all choices are roughly synonymous, choose the most concise answer that preserves the meaning of the sentence. Choice (C) is the most concise, and it preserves the meaning of the sentence.

36.  J  Note that in the part of the sentence before the underlined portion, the author refers to earlier folklorists. The word earlier makes choices (F), (G), and (H) redundant. Only choice (J) correctly opts to DELETE the underlined portion.

37.  A  Begin by determining whether the sentence beginning with However provides a continuation of the prior sentence or a contrast to the prior sentence. Because the author illustrates a difference between the work of earlier folklorists and that of Chesnutt, eliminate the continuation words, choices (C) and (D). Choice (B) is wrong because two complete sentences may not be separated by a comma. Choice (A) properly uses a period.

38.  J  The proposed addition does not relate to or flow from the paragraph, which is about Chesnutt’s works. Eliminate choices (F) and (G). The substance of choice (H) is incorrect. Choice (J) correctly observes that the addition is distracting.

39.  C  This pronoun refers to The Conjure Woman, a singular noun, so it cannot be their as in choice (B). Choice (D) is not a word, so that can be eliminated as well. Choice (A) gives the contraction it is, which is not used to show possession. Choice (C) shows the appropriate possession. Remember: possessive pronouns don’t have an apostrophe (think of hers, yours, and ours).

40.  J  Because the underlined portion is difficult to follow, don’t try to rewrite it on your own. Rather, read all four answer choices to determine which one is the clearest. Choice (J) clearly articulates the author’s meaning and does so without wordiness.

41.  C  Since the sentence is referring to only a single family, eliminate choices (B) and (D). Between choices (A) and (C), remember that although a family includes many people, it is actually a singular noun, and its possessive should thus be punctuated as family’s, as in choice (C).

42.  F  While choices (G), (H), and (J) all make the sentence shorter, each makes the meaning of the sentence unclear. Choice (G) gives an ambiguous pronoun with no clear antecedent. Choice (H) is also ambiguous, although it probably refers to the children, changing the meaning of the sentence. Choice (J) suggests that the novel was the first to talk about itself, which does not make logical sense. Only choice (F) gives a clear, unambiguous indication of what the novel was the first to talk about.

43.  C  In EXCEPT/LEAST/NOT questions, the underlined portion of the sentence is correct. The underlined portion is a modifier, properly followed by what the modifier describes: the novel. Choices (A), (B), and (D) are also modifiers describing the novel. Choice (C), however, is a modifier describing the person or company that published the novel. Thus, choice (C) would have to be followed by that person or company, not the novel.

44.  G  Choices (F), (H), and (J) are all too narrow to be described as summarizing the essay. Choice (F) refers only to the two books discussed in the text, but the last paragraph indicates that Chesnutt’s influence extends beyond these two books and beyond his lifetime. Choice (H) refers to only the first paragraph. Choice (J) refers only to the paragraph about The Conjure Woman. Only choice (G) is general enough to encapsulate the entire essay.

45.  D  Notice the time periods in each paragraph. Paragraph 2 talks about the end of Chesnutt’s life, his death in 1932, and his current reputation. Accordingly, it must come after discussions of earlier points in his biography but before Paragraph 5, which is meant to conclude and summarize the essay. Also note that The House Behind the Cedars is mentioned as if the reader already has some familiarity with it, so the paragraph must come after Paragraph 4, which discusses The House Behind the Cedars.

46.  J  The subject of the sentence is accomplishments, so the verb must be plural to agree with it. Choice (J) provides a plural verb in the correct past tense. Choices (F) and (G) are singular. Choice (H) can be either singular or plural, but it uses a future tense, which does not agree with the tense of the passage.

47.  C  The sentence makes sense if you remove the phrase according to his widow Rachel Robinson. Since the phrase is not essential to the meaning of the sentence, it should be offset by commas. Thus, choice (C) is correct. Choice (A) has no pauses to offset this information, and choice (B) has an additional and unnecessary comma. Both choices confuse the flow of the sentence. Choice (D) uses a long dash incorrectly because the non-underlined portion uses a comma instead of a second long dash to indicate that the phrase must be offset.

48.  J  Choice (J) is the most concise answer that conveys the correct meaning, and it removes the redundancy of the original sentence. Choices (F), (G), and (H) are wordy and redundant. Note, when DELETE is offered as an answer choice, always give it serious consideration—omitting an unnecessary part of the sentence can often make it more clear and concise.

49.  B  The underlined phrase describes the team for which Jackie Robinson played baseball, so choice (B) is correct. Choices (A), (C), and (D) confuse the meaning of the sentence or disrupt its flow.

50.  J  The word baseball ends an incomplete thought, and the word he begins a complete thought. Choices (F), (G), and (H) all contain punctuation that can only be used to separate two complete thoughts. Choice (J) is the only answer choice that uses a comma to correctly link an incomplete thought to a complete one.

51.  A  The end of the sentence details the seats in the stadium, so the most specific type of person to fill them is a spectator, choice (A). Choice (B) is not specific enough. Choices (C) and (D) describe types of people that would be at a baseball game but not occupying the seats in the stadium.

52.  G  Choice (G) is correct because the paragraph describes how Jackie’s excellent play changed the attitudes of whites toward having blacks in baseball. Choices (F), (H), and (J) do not accurately describe the point of the paragraph, so they are not things that would be lost with its deletion.

53.  C  First, determine whether the sentence following for example provides a continuation of the prior sentence or a contrast to the prior sentence. Because the prior sentence explains that an ordinary man who did what Jackie did would wilt, and the sentence following for example describes Jackie’s increased efforts, a contrasting term is needed. Thus, eliminate choices (A), (B), and (D). Choice (C) is correct.

54.  F  The noun being referred to is athletes, so the possessive pronoun relating to it must agree in person and number, as it does in choice (F). Choices (G) and (H) do not agree because the possessive pronouns in these choices are singular. Choice (J) contains the proper agreement, but it incorrectly acts as a noun instead of an adjective.

55.  B  The sentence should be kept because it provides important information about Jackie Robinson’s personality, eliminating choices (C) and (D). Choice (B) is correct because the mention of other athletes using their status for personal gain emphasizes Jackie’s personal sacrifice and dedication to civil rights advancement. Choice (A) is incorrect because there is no indication in the passage that Jackie had any endorsement deals.

56.  F  The word entrepreneur ends a complete thought, and the word his begins a second complete thought. Choices (G) and (H) contain punctuation that can not be used to connect complete thoughts. Choice (J) incorrectly uses a semicolon instead of a comma with the coordinating conjunction and, causing the second thought to become incomplete.

57.  C  Sentence 3 contains the description of Jackie’s civil rights activism during his baseball career, and Sentence 4 describes his activism after his baseball career, so choice (C) is correct. Choices (A), (B), and (D) do not correctly separate the two periods of his activism.

58.  H  The word than indicates a comparison between two things, as with choice (H). Choice (F) contains a superlative, which is used for three or more things. Choice (G) does not contain any words of comparison. Choice (J) contains a word that is not proper English.

59.  D  The word movement ends an incomplete thought, and the word his begins a complete thought. Choice (D) correctly uses a comma to link an incomplete thought to a complete one. Choice (A) creates a run-on sentence. Choices (B) and (C) contain punctuation that can be used only to separate two complete thoughts.

60.  G  In EXCEPT/LEAST/NOT questions, the underlined portion of the sentence is correct. This sentence agrees in tone with the one preceding it. Therefore, a transition word that indicates that agreement is required, as with choices (F), (H), and (J). Choice (G) provides a transition word that indicates an opposing tone, so it is the LEAST acceptable alternative and thus the correct answer.

61.  D  Choice (D) corrects the punctuation error in the passage. A semicolon should not be used if it separates essential parts of a sentence (the verb fertilized should not be separated from its subject patches of moss). Choices (B) and (C) incorrectly insert a comma between a preposition and its object.

62.  G  In EXCEPT/LEAST/NOT questions, the underlined portion of the sentence is correct. Choice (G) inserts a period, incorrectly separating the dependent clause from the independent clause. The dependent clause becoming active again when the climate warms and the ice is melting cannot stand on its own as a complete sentence.

63.  C  Choice (C) provides a verb form that is parallel in structure to the preceding verb, warms. Choices (A), (B), and (D) are not parallel, and choice (B) also creates a sentence fragment.

64.  J  Choice (J) presents wording that is consistent with the style and tone of the rest of the essay. Choices (F), (G), and (H) are all too informal.

65.  C  Because the phrase classified as arthropods is not necessary to the sentence, it needs to be set off by commas, as in choice (C). Choices (B) and (D) are incorrect because each omits one of the required commas. Choice (A) is incorrect because a semicolon may be used only in between two complete ideas.

66.  H  Choice (H) provides the correct usage of the adverb too, which means to an excessive degree, and removes the improper comma after icy. Choices (F) and (G) incorrectly use the preposition to. Choice (J) improperly inserts a comma after icy.

67.  A  In EXCEPT/LEAST/NOT questions, the underlined portion of the sentence is correct. Choice (A) incorrectly omits a necessary comma, thereby creating a run-on sentence.

68.  G  Choice (G) correctly uses the present tense (accompany), which is in accordance with the use of the present tense in the rest of this paragraph. Choices (F) and (J) incorrectly use the past tense and choice (H) uses the past perfect tense.

69.  D  Choice (D) is the clearest, most concise answer. Choices (A), (B), and (C) all provide information that is not relevant to the passage.

70.  J  Choice (J) is correct because without the inclusion of the modifying phrase, the Here in the following sentence does not refer to anything. Choice (F) incorrectly suggests removing the phrase, and the modifying phrase does not include a fact that is provided later in the paragraph. Choice (G) incorrectly proposes removing the phrase and wrongly states that the above paragraph mentions insects as the only life forms in Antarctica. While it’s true that the clause should be kept, choice (H) incorrectly assumes that Antarctica and McMurdo Sound are two different places; the phrase clearly specifies that McMurdo Sound is part of the continent of Antarctica.

71.  B  Choice (B) is the most descriptive and relevant of the answer choices. Choice (C) provides no visual detail besides snow cover, and choices (A) and (D) lack the vivid detail of choice (B), which adds description to the flora with the adjectives green, yellow, and orange. In addition, only choice (B) directly addresses the terrain in its description of the rocky land.

72.  H  Choice (H) is the most logical place to move this prepositional phrase. The nematode worms are not thriving with the low temperatures, or dehydrating themselves with the low temperatures, or increasing moisture with the low temperatures, they are coping with the low temperatures. In addition, note that Choices (F), (G), and (J) all match verbs with prepositions in idiomatically incorrect ways.

73.  B  Choice (B) does not effectively address the central point made in Paragraph 4: namely, that algae exist not only in the water, but also on land. Choices (A), (C), and (D) all effectively introduce the subject of Paragraph 4, signaling that the paragraph will discuss the ways in which algae adapt to the harsh climate of Antarctica, both on land and in the sea.

74.  F  Choice (F) correctly suggests keeping the phrase and ties it back into the point made in the preceding sentence: that phytoplankton help maintain the equilibrium of Antarctica’s ecosystem. While Choice (G) is correct to propose keeping the clause, it incorrectly identifies seals, whales, and penguins as the most important creatures in Antarctica’s seas, a debatable topic. Choices (H) and (J) incorrectly suggest removing the clause.

75.  A  Choice (A) correctly fits between the preceding sentence and the sentence that follows, because it indicates a contrasting relationship between the two ideas; while Antarctica has the lowest species diversity of anywhere on earth, the numbers of those species that do exist are staggering considering the harsh climatic conditions of the environment. Choice (B) wrongly inserts indeed, which is incorrect because the writer is presenting a contrasting relationship, not emphasizing a point made in the preceding sentence. Choices (C) and (D) each suggest a cause-effect relationship that is not indicated in the passage.


  1.  D  Treat absolute–value bars like parentheses and evaluate what’s inside the absolute value bars first: |8 − 5| − |5 − 8| = |3| −| −3 = 3 | 3 = 0. Remember that absolute–value is a measure of distance, so the result is always nonnegative. Choice (E) is 3 − (−3) = 6.

  2.  G  First, subtract the flat fee from the total cost to determine how much the tutor charged exclusively for tutoring: $220 – $40 = $180. $180 = $60/hr × 3 hours, so choice (G) is correct. Choice (F) incorrectly uses $40 + $60 = $100 as the hourly rate. Choices (H) and (K) divide $220 by $60 and $40, respectively, without subtracting the flat fee. Choice (J) calculates the session with a $60 flat fee and $40 hourly rate.

  3.  B  The time it takes Train A can be found by dividing the number of miles it goes by the speed, . Train B then takes 48 hours, . To find how many more hours it takes, subtract the hours it takes Train B to go from the hours it takes Train A, 72 − 48 = 24, choice (B). Choice (A) is the result of averaging the miles per hour values, and choice (C) from adding them. Choice (D) and (E) are the hours that each train takes, not the difference.

  4.  K. The question is asking you to simplify the expression by combining like terms.33r2 − 41r2 = −8r2, −24r + r = −23r. The simplified expression is −8r2 −23r + 75. Choices (F) and (G) combine all coefficients between unlike terms. Choice (H) forgets that r is actually 1r. Choice (J) incorrectly multiplies variables rather than just adding the coefficients.

  5.  B  Since the triangles are equilateral and each one’s perimeter is 15, each side is 5. Figure ABCDEF has six sides, so its perimeter is 6(5) = 30. Choice (D) finds the area of the figure rather than its perimeter. Choice (E) treats the sides of each triangle, rather than the perimeter of each triangle, as 15. Choice (A) miscalculates the side of the triangle as 3 inches, and choice (C) includes the dotted interior lines in calculating the perimeter.

  6.  G  Use the FOIL method. Multiply the First, Outside, Inside, and Last terms together, and then add the results. (5x + 2)(x − 3) = 5x2 − 15x + 2x − 6 = 5x2 − 13x −6.

  7.  E  Use the words in the problem to create an equation: percent means “divide by 100,” of means “multiply,” and what number means “use a variable.” The first equation is x = 14 and x = 40. The second equation is y = (40) = 8. Choice (A) is 20% of 14. Choice (B) is 35% of 14. Choice (D) is (20% + 35%) of 14.

  8.  G  The list of integers adds up to 7x + 7. Set that equal to 511 then solve, and you’ll get choice (G), 72. Choice (H) divides 511 by 7 without first subtracting 7, and choice (J) mistakenly adds 7 to the sum. Choices (F) and (K) are both incorrect estimates.

  9.  C  The easiest approach to this problem is to test all the answer choices. If point B is the midpoint of line A, you can use the midpoint formula  by plugging in the answer choices into the equation along with the values given for point A. When plugging in answer choice (C), the equation is  which gives you the correct midpoint of (5,6). Choice (A) confuses C as the midpoint. The other answer choices do not use the midpoint formula correctly.

10.  H  Because the trapezoid is isosceles, its two vertical halves are mirror images of each other. To get from A to B requires adding 3 to the x value, and 6 to the y value of A, so to get from D to C, instead subtract 3 from the x value and add 6 to the y value of D.

11.  D  To find the total average sales at each bus station, multiply the values of each column of the first matrix by the relevant row in the second matrix. 180(3) + 200(3) + 150(3) + 60(2) + 120(2) + 70(2) = 2,090. Choice (A) finds the number of tickets sold and choice (C) multiplies that total by $2.50, the average of the two fare rates. Choice (B) gives only the peak fare sales. Choice (E) finds the total if all of the fares were bought at the peak $3 price.

12.  F  The sum of the exterior angles of a regular polygon = 360°. If you have trouble remembering this rule, use the supplemental angles in the problem. Because a° + 35° = 180°, a = 145°. Find angle b the same way: b° + 45° = 180°, so b = 135°. You can now find the third angle in the triangle: 180° − 35° − 45° = 100°. Now you know that c° + 100° = 180°, so c = 80°. a + b + c = 145° + 135° + 80° = 360°.

13.  B  Use the words in the problem to create an equation: percent means “divide by 100,” of means “multiply,” and what number means “use a variable.” The equation is  × 300 = 60, so x = 20%. Choice (A) is the percent of purple jellybeans. Choice (C) is the percent of red jellybeans. Choice (D) is the percent of orange jellybeans. Choice (E) confuses the number of green jellybeans and the percent of the sample consisting of green jellybeans.

14.  H  Set up a proportion: , and x = 6,250. Choice (F) is the estimate for the number of purple jellybeans in the barrel. Choice (G) is the estimate for the number of green jellybeans. Choice (J) is the estimate for the number of orange jellybeans. Choice (K) assumes that the 75 red jellybeans in the sample is the same as the percentage of red jellybeans and finds 75% of 25,000.

15.  E  To find the central angle, first find what fraction of the sample is composed of orange jellybeans: . The central angle for the orange sector is  × 360° = 144°. Choice (A) is the central angle for the purple sector. Choice (B) is the central angle for the green sector. Choice (C) is the central angle for the red sector. Choice (D) confuses the number of orange jellybeans with the degree measure of the central angle.

16.  G  Because E and F are both midpoints, draw a line between them and you divide the rectangle into 4 equal parts. Quadrilateral AECF contains 2 of these 4 parts, or (G). Choice (J) shows the ratio using ABE instead of quadrilateral AECF, while choice (F) shows the ratio of the quadrilateral to the other half of the rectangle. Choice (H) assumes the 3 parts in the original diagram are equal. Choice (K) divides the rectangle into 5 parts.

17.  D  In the slope-intercept form, y = mx + b, the slope of the line is m = . Parallel lines have the same slope, so the answer is choice (D). Choice (B) is the slope of the perpendicular line to the given line. Choice (A) is the y-intercept. Choices (C) and (E) are the opposite and reciprocal, respectively, of the correct slope.

18.  K  Given that the ratio of the two sittings is 3:5, you can make the equation: 3 × x minutes + 5 × x minutes = 120 minutes, so 8x = 120, and x = 15. The longer sitting is 5x = 5 × 15 = 75 minutes. Careful not to choose choice (H), which is the shorter sitting or choice (G), which is the value of x.

19.  C  Find the square root of each answer choice on your calculator until you find a value between 11 and 12.  − 11.83. Choice (B) is 11 exactly; the question asks for something greater. The value of choice (D) is just more than 12, too big. Choice (A) adds the numbers from the problem without answering what is asked for, and choice (E) = 23, the sum of the numbers in the problem.

20.  H  The area of the entire space of the garden is 10 × 16 × 3 = 480 ft2. The rectangular plot for beans is 4 × 6 = 24 ft2, and the rectangular plot for lettuce is 2 × 5 = 12.5 ft2. Subtract the spaces for beans and lettuce from the total space for tomatoes. 480 − 24 − 12.5 = 443.5 ft2. Since the maximum number of square feet that can be covered by a packet is 200, estimate  > 2 packets. Susan will need to buy a minimum of 3 packets.

21.  E  First, bring the 12 to the left side of the equation, so the whole equation is equal to 0 (i.e., x2 + 4x − 12 = 0). Factor the equation by thinking of what two numbers when multiplied together = −12 and when added together = 4. 6 and −2 satisfy those conditions. Make the equation (x + 6)(x − 2) = 0, then set (x + 6) = 0 and (x − 2) = 0 and solve for x in both cases. x is either −6 or 2. You can also try the numbers from the answer choices and see which ones satisfy the equation.

22.  J  To divide, subtract the exponents of common terms. To visualize what’s happening, you can write out the expression as . Cancel matching terms in the numerator and denominator to get , or . Choices (F) and (G) negate the value of the entire expression, and Choice (K) flips the numerator and denominator. Choice (H) incorrectly assumes x2 = y2.

23.  E  If point A must have at least one positive coordinate value, it could be located in any quadrant except for III, or choice (E). Points in quadrant III have negative x-coordinates and negative y-coordinates. Choice (C) incorrectly assumes the point has exactly 1 positive coordinate. Choice (A) assumes the point has exactly 2 positive coordinates, while (D) assumes it cannot have 2 positive coordinates.

24.  H  If the fixed cost each day of the company is $1,600 and the variable cost is the additional cost each day of producing each box. The equation then would be the fixed cost plus the variable cost, which is 1,600 + 4.75b, or choice (H). Choices (F) and (K) switch the fixed and variable costs. Choices (G) and (J) find the difference between the variable costs and the fixed cost instead of adding them to form the total cost.

25.  D. The sides of similar triangles are proportional in length. To find how many times larger the larger triangle’s perimeter is than the smaller triangle’s, divide the two known perimeters  = 60 times larger.  will also be 60 times larger than : 3.2 × 60 = 192.

26.  K  Multiply the fractions on the left so that . You can then cross multiply to get 66 = 33x, which simplifies to x = 2. You can also substitute the answer choices in for x and see which works in the equation. Choice (J) is half the value needed and choice (G) is its square. Choice (H) is 112. Choice (F) is a number from the problem that does not answer the given question.

27.  D  Set up an equation for each runner, with the number of seconds to get to the crossing point, as well as the number of feet from point “0 feet” being equal for both runners. Jonathan starts 150 feet in from what we will say is “0 feet” on the track, or at the 150 ft. point, and he runs at a speed of 9 ft./second for x seconds, covering y feet: 150 ft. + 9 ft./second × (x seconds) = y feet. Natalie starts at 1,300 feet and runs in the opposite direction at 12 ft./second for x seconds, covering y feet: 1,300 ft. − 12 ft./second × (x seconds) = y feet. Since both equations = y, set them equal to each other and solve for x seconds. 150 + 9x = 1,300 − 12x, 21x = 1,150, x = 54.8 seconds. If you’re not sure how to set up the equation, try working backwards from the answer choices. In this case, each of the answers is a possible value for the time—use this time to figure out how far along each runner is on the track, and pick the answer that gets them the closest. It won’t give you the exact answer, but it can help you to eliminate some answers that give values that are either much too large or much too small.

28.  G  For each of the 3 possible ice-cream flavors, there are 2 possible types of syrup: so multiply 3 × 2. For each of those 6 possible orders, there are 6 possible kinds of candy toppings, so multiply 6 × 6 = 36 total possibilities.

29.  B  The width of the box is half its length, so if its length is 12 cm, its width is 6 cm. The width is also twice the box’s height, so the height is 3 cm. To find the volume, you multiply all three dimensions (V = lwh): 12(6)(3) = 216. Choice (D) incorrectly calculates the sides as 6, 12, and 24, and choice (E) incorrectly calculates the sides as 12, 24, and 48. Choice (A) neglects to multiply by the depth. Choice (C) finds the surface area of the box.

30.  J  Substitute the values into the equation given, and you’ll get D = $2,155(1 + 0.13) + 10(2)2, which is equal to $2,475.15, or approximately choice (J). Choice (F) forgets to calculate the interest rate. Choice (G) forgets to add the 10(2)2, while choice (H) adds only 20. Choice (K) incorrectly calculates the interest rate at 14%.

31.  D  The equation for surface area is given as the expression πr2 + πrs, where r is the radius and s is the slant height. The radius in the figure is half of the diameter, which is given as 30. The slant height is 30. By plugging these into the equation you get (15)2π + (15)(30)π, or 675π, choice (D). Choice (C) is the result of forgetting to square the radius. Choice (E) uses the diameter instead of the radius in the equation. Choices (A) and (B) each result from evaluating only half of the expression.

32.  F  To solve a composite function, work inside out starting with the value of g(a), then taking the function f of g(a). g(a) is given as 2a2 + 1, so f(g(a)) = f(2a2 + 1). Substitute 2a2 + 1 for a in the f(a) equation to get f(2a2 + 1) = 3(2a2 + 1) − 4. Distribute the 3 within the parentheses to get 6a2 + 3 − 4, which simplifies to 6a2 − 1.

33.  D  To find the average, you need to find the total of all stars given to the movie and divide by the number of students surveyed: . If you don’t have time for the calculations, cross out answer choices that are too large or too small to be the average and take a reasonable guess. Choice (A) is much too small and choice (E) is much too large. Choice (A) flips the numerator and the denominator. Choice (E) divides 262 by the sum of the column on the left and its answer is rounded to only the nearest tenth. Choices (B) and (C) each drop one of the components of the numerator when calculating.

34.  G  Two angles are supplementary if the sum of their degrees measures is 180°. To create supplementary angles when two lines are intersected by a third line, the two lines must be parallel. Since x is supplementary to angles 8 and 11, lines q and s must be parallel. Since angles 4 and 6 are not necessarily supplementary to x, lines q and r need not be parallel, eliminating choices (F) and (K). Since angles 7 and 5 are not necessarily parallel to angles 8 and 11, lines r and s need not be parallel, eliminating choice (H). Lines p and q intersect so they cannot be parallel, eliminating choice (J).

35.  E  Choice (E) reflects the correct rules of exponents: The numeral inside the parentheses (4) gets raised to the power of 4, then the exponents inside the parentheses are multiplied by 4. Choices (B) and (C) incorrectly multiply the numeral by 4, and (D) incorrectly adds 4 to the variables’ exponents. Choice (A) divides all the numbers by 4.

36.  F  In order to solve this problem you need to isolate x. By doing this you get the equation x < −11, thus the correct answer is (F). The other choices solve the inequality with the wrong direction of signs (choice (G)) or incorrect algebra.

37.  E  Since you are looking for a point that is rotated counterclockwise, the point should be in Quadrant IV with a positive x-value and negative y-value, eliminating choices (A) and (B). A 90° rotation means you can use the line perpendicular to . Find the slope of  by counting the rise over the run from A to L = . The perpendicular slope will be the negative reciprocal , so you want to go 8 units down and 6 units left from the center of the circle: (10 − 6, −2 − 8) = (4, −10).

38.  F  First, use the Pythagorean theorem to find the third side of the triangle. (12)2 + b2 = 162, so b = . SOHCAHTOA tells you that , or . Choice (J) is the sine of the angle, and choices (G), (H), and (K) all find other trigonometric functions of the angle. Also, note that to solve this problem, you don’t need to solve for the angle θ.

39.  C  Since  bisects BADBAC and CAD are equal, and since  bisects CAEDAE and CAD are equal. Since BAC and DAE are both equal to CADBAD = DAE = CAD. Given that there are 180° in a straight line, CAD =  (180°) = 60°.

40.  H  To find the volume of the container, set up the equation  = 3 × 104 molecules l cubic inch. So, x = . Remember to subtract the exponents when dividing quantities with like bases. Choice (F) is . Choice (G) is the result of dividing the exponents. Choice (J) is the result of multiplying the numbers in the problem. Choice (K) is (3 × 6) × (104×8).

41.  B  Choice (B) correctly calculates the value of C, which is 360 − 250 + 30 = 140. Choices (A) and (D) use the wrong angles, 30 and 250 respectively. Choice (C) incorrectly calculates 250 − 30, while choice (E) calculates 250 + 30.

42.  J  The number halfway between  and  can be found by averaging the two numbers. , which is a real number, making Choice (K) the correct answer. The other answer choices are real numbers but are not halfway between the two values. Choice (G) is between the two values, but it is not halfway.

43.  D  Find DEB by subtracting all other angles in ADE from 180°. ADE and EBA are congruent because they have congruent sides: both triangles share and are each half the length of congruent sides, and diagonals and are equal. Therefore, EBA = EDA = 95°, and DAE = BEA = 35°. DEB = 180° − EDA − DAE − BEA = 95° − 35° − 35° = 15°. Choice (A) either simply subtracts the two angles given from 180° or is the measure of DEA.

44.  H  x is the side of the large square table minus the side of the small square table. Since A=s2. The side of the large square table is . The area of the small square table is  = 12, so its side is . Choice (F) gives the side of the small square table instead of x, and choice (K) gives the area of the small square table. Choice (G) subtracts terms with a common radical incorrectly. Choice (J) subtracts the two areas and then takes the square root of the result, instead of first taking the square root of each area and then subtracting the results.

45.  E  A rational number is one which can be expressed as a fraction. Only choice (E) can be reduced to integer values in the numerator and denominator: .

46.  G  Pick a value for both x and y. If x = −5 and y = −3, then |−5 + (−3)| = |−8| =8. Choice (G) is also 8. Choice (F) is −8. Choice (H) is −2. Choice (J) is 2 and choice (K) is .

47.  E  In order to figure out what Jane must get on her next game, you need to figure out how many points total she has earned on the first 5 games and how many points total she must get in order to average 85 in 6 games. To find the total points she needs on the six games, multiply her desired average by the number of games: 85 × 6 =510. To find the number of points she has already gotten, multiply her average on the first 5 games by the number of games which is 5 × 83 =415. The difference between these numbers is the score she must get in order to get an average of 85 on the 6 games, which is 95, or choice (E). Choice (C) is the score she would have to get in the next two games for an average of 85. You could use Process of Elimination to rule out choices (A) and (B) since she wants her average to go up, and thus, she must get a higher score on the next test.

48.  G  Since the modulus is , then the quadrant that the point is found in is negligible since all points are squared. Thus, the point with the greatest distance from the origin will have the greatest modulus, and the point with the shortest distances from the origin will have the smallest. You could use sample points to test this. Thus, choice (G) is the answer since it is the closest to the origin, and thus has the smallest modulus.

49.  B  Since 9 = 32 and 27 = 33, make 9x − 4 = 273x + 2 into 32(x − 4) = 33(3x + 2). The equation now reads: “3 to some power = 3 to some power.” Therefore, the exponents are equal: 2(x − 4) = 3(3x + 2). Distribute the 2 and the 3 to get 2x − 8 = 9x + 6. Subtract 9x and add 8 to each side of the equation to get −7x = 14. Divide by −7, x = −2.

50.  J  A sine curve is an odd function, so choice (J) is correct. If you didn’t know this, test each answer choice against the graph and the function, eliminating those not supported. If you can draw a horizontal line through the function that crosses it at two or more points, you have found multiple x values for the same y value, meaning the function is not 1:1 as defined. The horizontal line y = 0 crosses the graph of the function three times, eliminating choice (F). This also tells us that y, another name for F(X), is 0 at x = 0, eliminating choice (G). The arrows at either end of the function’s graph tell you that the domain (set of all x values) extends infinitely in both directions beyond −6 and 6 respectively, eliminating choice (K). Test values to find the remaining incorrect answer. You can approximate that (−3,−2) and (3,2) lie close to function. f(−3) ≠ f(3) because −2 ≠ 2, eliminating choice (H). You are left with choice (J): f(−3)= −f(3), because −2 = −(2).

51.  B  Make a list of the integers from 299 through 1,000 which contain 1 as a digit. 301, 310, 311, 312 … 319 = 11 integers. 321, 331, 341, 351 … 391 = 8 integers. 11 + 8 = 19 integers from 299 through 399. Since this pattern will repeat 7 times from 299 to 999: 400 to 499, 500 to 599 … to 999, multiply 19 × 7 = 133. Finally, add 1 for the number 1,000 = 134 integers.

52.  G  You can immediately eliminate choices (J) and (K) because line  increases as x increases, which means it has a positive slope. Because  is parallel to the x-axis and NLM is isosceles, the slope of  is the negative of the slope of . Find the slope of  by rewriting the equation y + x = 2 as y = −x + 2, where the slope m is . The slope of , therefore, is .

53.  A  The notation  means find the angle that has a sine value of . Recall that the sine of an angle is . The side marked x is opposite ACB so that’s the angle in question. Now, use SOHCAHTOA to find that () = .

54.  H  The area of a circle is πr2, which in this case is π (12)2, or approximately 452. Choice (F) incorrectly calculates the circumference (2πr). Choice (G) creates a square by forgetting to multiply by π. Choice (J) calculates 2πr2, while choice (K) shows π2r2.

55.  E  The general equation for a circle is (y – h)2 + (x – k)2 = r2 (in which h and k are the x- and y-coordinates of the center of the circle, and r is the radius). You can eliminate choices (A), (B), and (C) because they are not in the correct equation form. Since the radius 12 must be squared, the correct answer is (E).

56.  F  If the 2 anchors are 30 feet apart, and Joy’s dog is on a 20-foot leash, it can get within 10 feet of Melissa’s anchor (30 − 20 = 10). Melissa’s dog can run 12 feet from its anchor, so there is an overlap of 2 feet. Choice (G) is the difference of the two dog leashes. Choices (H) and (J) subtract each dog leash length from 30. Choice (K) is the sum of the two leashes.

57.  D  Look at the graph of the two equations. Find the x-values where the y-value of the equation y = −(x + 1)2 + 4 is greater than the y-value of the equation y = (−x + 1). According to the figure, the parabola has a higher y-value than the line between the x-values −2 and 1, making choice (D) the answer.

58.  J  Test numbers to answer this question. Because you need two-digit integers, and you want the maximum value for (y – x), y should be the larger value, and x the smaller. Say t = 1 and u = 9; that makes y = 91 and x = 19, and (y– x) = 72. The answer choice that yields the greatest value is (J).

59.  C  Use the formula for the area of a parallelogram Area = base × height. Find the length of the base by calculating the length of : 8 − 2 = 6. Find the height by dropping an altitude perpendicular to the base from point D to point (4, −4), which has a length of 2. Area = 6 × 2 = 12. Choice (D) incorrectly uses side with length  for the height.

60.  G  To determine the sixth term, you first need to find the common difference between consecutive terms in the sequence. Use the given formula to solve for x1: 145= , so x1 = 10. The common difference in an arithmetic sequence is basically the slope of a straight line: . The sixth term, therefore, is 48 + 9.5 = 57.5. Choice (F) calculates n + 1, rather than xn+1. Choices (H) and (K) use averages, rather than a common difference. Choice (J) incorrectly adds the difference to the sum, rather than x5.


  1.  A  The narrator describes a volcano that lacks air vents as a potential outlet for the heat and pressure building internally, leading ever closer to an eruption. Choice (A) identifies the purpose of the figurative imagery as a way of depicting the friend’s frustration toward the thoughts building up uncomfortably inside of him. Choices (B) and (D) are incorrect because the narrator is describing his friend’s struggle, not attempting to offer consolation or advice concerning it. Choice (C) is incorrect because the metaphor does nothing to explain the physical impairment of the friend’s speech but rather it describes the psychological effects of the impairment.

  2.  H  The passage is consistently focused on the ongoing process of the narrator attempting to help his friend deal with a speech impairment. Choice (H) captures that and correctly identifies the exchange of letters between the narrator and his friend as a main source of ideas the passage discussed. The passage tells us nothing about the narrator’s friend other than his speech impairment, so the passage is not a detailed character study as choice (F) suggests. The overwhelming voice of the passage is that of the narrator, so it is inaccurate to say that the narrator and his friend take equal turns debating the issue as choice (G) states. The passage is not focused on the narrator’s legal career, nor does it mention any struggles related to being a lawyer as stated in choice (J).

  3.  D  The narrator compares his friend’s speech to an oceanic cloud of dust and debris and his friend’s writing to an omni-directional lava flow. Choice (D) correctly points to speech and writing as vocal and non-vocal expression. Choices (A) and (C) are almost synonymous pairs of nouns, making either one a very unlikely correct answer. The passage does not indicate a contrast between simplicity and complexity, so you can eliminate Choice (B).

  4.  H  The narrator’s sympathetic and encouraging attitude is revealed via his ongoing concern for his friend’s frustration and goal of giving him a positive outlook on it; the friend shows his anxiety and despondence by saying I fear I will eventually choke on my own thoughts and by watching the narrator’s speech with a mix of pride and pain in his eyes. Because the narrator is chiefly concerned with making his friend feel better, choice (F) is not correct to call the narrator jaded or indifferent. Although the friend occasionally disagrees with the narrator on points of their discussion, there is nothing scornful about his tone, making choice (G) incorrect. The friend is physically unable to speak his mind, but that does not make him shy or reclusive as choice (J) states.

  5.  C  Little detail is provided about Cyrano de Bergerac other than that he enlisted the help of a friend to speak his thoughts aloud to a woman he was trying to woo. Choice (C) is supported by that detail. Choice (A) involves knowing the woman is the love of his life, which we do not. Choice (B) involves knowing that Cyrano had a physical impairment, which we do not. Choice (D) involves knowing that Cyrano was unable to express his emotions, which we do not.

  6.  H  The passage states that pirates share a common destiny but no longer pledge allegiance to any sovereign entity, providing support for choice (H). Choice (F) is not known; pirates may have stringent rules of conduct for each other. Choice (G) is misleading language, borrowing the word confusion from the next sentence but presenting an unsupported idea. Choice (J) ignores the specific purpose of the pirate simile and merely relates pirates to the main topic of the passage.

  7.  A  The details in the passage that indicate what the friend values in vocal speech come in the final paragraph. The friend deeply misses the expressiveness that a human voice can add to the meaning of words and he prevents the narrator from speaking too mechanically. Choice (A) identifies that an expressive tone is something the friend values. Choice (B) is contradicted by the friend’s distaste for overly mechanical speech, and choices (C) and (D) are not ingredients of vocal speech that are ever discussed in the passage.

  8.  G  Choice (G) is correct because the friend says I fear that I will eventually choke on my own thoughts. This reflects an expectation of suffering due to his inability to speak his mind. A fear of embarrassment is never discussed, making choice (F) incorrect. A concern of interfering with the narrator’s legal career is never mentioned, making choice (H) incorrect. The friend never questions his capacity for creating well-orchestrated thought, as choice (J) suggests; he only clarifies that both written and vocal speech are capable of expressing it.

  9.  D  The narrator’s mention of a puppet is an expression of his desire to allow his own voice to be used by his friend. Choice (D) correctly identifies the usage of puppet as a surrogate voice. Choices (A) and (C) are trap language based on other associations with the word puppet, and choice (B) relates to the subject of speech but does not correctly identify that the narrator would be a passive vehicle for his friend’s ideas.

10.  F  The narrator describes a look of pride and pain in his friend’s eyes, knowing that his friend is enjoying the legal proceedings but wrestling with the fact that the narrator can express himself more lucidly than the friend may ever be able to again. This combination of delight and deprivation justifies choice (F). Nothing in this paragraph suggests confusion, as choice (G) suggests, or overbearing annoyance to the narrator, as in choice (H). While the friend experiences pain and longing for his lost abilities, to say that he is bitter or resentful, as choice (J) does, is too strong.

11.  A  The passage states that no one before has been able to directly link human behavior to ice-shelf breakup. Choice (A) must be correct because the passage states that human behavior has been proven to be connected to the rise in temperature that causes the collapse. Therefore, human behavior is both a considerable factor and a previously unproven one. Choice (B) is incorrect because while glaciological influences do contribute, nowhere is there evidence that human behavior is insignificant. Choice (C) is incorrect because there was no discussion of prior evidence showing human activity to be a more influential factor than is suggested by current evidence. Choice (D) cannot be correct because it’s reiterated many times in the article that there are many factors contributing to ice shelf collapse, not just one.

12.  J  Choices (F), (G), and (H) reflect information presented in the concluding paragraph of the essay. Only choice (J) is NOT listed as an effect of sea level rise but rather as a cause of sea-level rise, thus making it the correct answer to this question.

13.  A  Choice (A) is the best answer because paragraph three discusses Dr. Marshall’s study and cites evidence that climate change was a major factor in the collapse. In the following paragraph, lines 66−67 in reference to Glasser and Scambos, the passage reads as follows: they acknowledge that global warming had a major role in the collapse. Choice (B) is incorrect because all of the scientists agree that climate change was a contributing factor. Choice (C) can’t be correct because while the scientists didn’t find the same things, both studies found evidence to explain the collapse. Choice (D) is incorrect because while structural evidence is cited as a factor in one of the studies, it’s not a common factor, nor was it the cause of the collapse.

14.  H  In the lines to consider, the author quotes the scientist’s two observations: one, that this is the first time anyone has demonstrated a human process linked to the collapse of a shelf, and two, that climate change doesn’t impact the planet evenly-as evidenced by the significant increase in temperatures in certain geological areas. This most clearly agrees with choice (H). Choice (F) is the opposite of the point being made in these lines. Choice (G) is incorrect because there is no evidence in the passage on which to base the conjecture that the observed local phenomena would extend to the entire earth. Choice (J) isn’t correct because there is no connection made between sea level and human activity.

15.  C  The last sentence of paragraph two says, the collapse of the Larsen B ice shelf seemed to be one of the most obvious and stunning signs of worldwide climate change, making choice (C) the correct answer. Choice (A) hasn’t yet happened, at least on the scale presented in the conclusion, (B) and (D) may happen as a result of climate change, but neither melt water nor increased temperature was called a stunning sign.

16.  J  Lines (65−69) say the shelf was already teetering on the brink of collapse before the final summer, and though … global warming had a major role in the collapse … it is only one of a number of atmospheric, oceanic and glaciological factors and then goes on to give an example of location and spacing of crevasses and rifts, showing that choice (J), a combination of factors is the best answer. Choice (F) is incorrect for two reasons: one, it talks about glaciers, not ice shelves, and two, the lines ask about the purpose of the findings; the findings say that global warming was not a cause, but a contributing factor. Choice (G) has no evidence to support it, and choice (H) is the opposite of the argument in the paragraph.

17.  D  The third paragraph discusses how human activity contributed to the collapse, which makes choice (D) the best answer. Choice (C) is a phrase found in the paragraph, but it is not the main idea. Choice (A) contradicts the evidence in the passage, and choice (B) is a main argument in the fourth paragraph, not the third.

18.  J  (F), (G), and (H) are all given as contributing factors to the ice shelf’s collapse in the passage. Deep ocean currents are never mentioned at all.

19.  B  Choice (B) is clearly stated in lines 38−41…stronger westerly winds in the northern Antarctic Peninsula, driven principally by human-induced climate change, are responsible for the significant increase in summer temperatures.…Choice (A) is disproven in the paragraph, as it is stated that the winds contribute to the warming, which contributes to the collapse of ice shelves. Choice (C) is not stated in the passage, and choice (D) is a detail unrelated to winds. Sea level has to do with glaciers speeding up after the shelves collapse.

20.  H  The remark comes just after a statement about how weather changes don’t affect the planet evenly. Therefore, the specific information about the increases in temperature in that particular region is an example of how weather changes are more extreme in certain places. Choice (F) is incorrect because there is no support in the passage for the idea that scientists are prone to exaggeration. Choice (G) might be tempting because the paragraph was about how human behavior causes warming patterns; however, the remark was not intended to make people change their behavior. It was an example of the point made prior to that sentence. Choice (J) is incorrect because there weren’t any misconceptions being discussed.

21.  A  The first paragraph introduces Rushdie and gives a little bit of information about his writing. It mentions where some of his books take place (India, Pakistan, and England), the fact that magical events sometimes occur, and that he is a virtuosic, or talented, writer. It does not, however, state what his intentions are as a writer, making choice (A) the best answer.

22.  G  The second paragraph states when and where Rushdie was born and raised. It then goes on to mention that he draws on all of these experiences in his writing. Although the passage states that Rushdie’s parents were Muslim, it does not discuss his personal faith, as in choice (F). The passage mentions that there was a struggle between the Hindi and Muslim populations but it does not give any details as to the reason for that, as in choice (H). Although the paragraph mentions that Rushdie does eventually immigrate to England, it does not state his reasons for doing so, making choice (J) incorrect.

23.  C  The passage begins by mentioning how well-known Rushdie’s life story is and then proceeds to explain some of the events in his life that seem to have influenced his work. Therefore, the best answer is choice (C), as that is the only answer that directly connects Rushdie’s life experiences with his writing. Choice (A) incorrectly refers to Rushdie’s personal failings, which are not mentioned in this passage. Choice (B) incorrectly focuses on the partition of India rather than Rushdie himself. Choice (D) incorrectly focuses on one of Rushdie’s books instead of Rushdie himself.

24.  H  The description of Bombay, as seen by Rushdie, is in the beginning of the third paragraph. The author explicitly refers to the smells, colors, and people, but nowhere is the weather mentioned, making choice (H) the correct answer.

25.  C  The fourth paragraph deals with the book Midnight’s Children and how it mirrors Rushdie’s life and exemplifies some of his feelings about life in India and Pakistan. His focus, according to this paragraph, is on the struggle that the two countries have in trying to exist together yet create individual identities after the partition. Nowhere does the passage state that Rushdie’s writing has a sense of futility or sadness, as in choices (A) and (B). The passage does mention a sense of longing but in the third paragraph, not the fourth.

26.  J  Although the passage refers to Rushdie’s work repeatedly, nowhere does it give a precise number and only one book is mentioned by name. Choice (F) is answered in the first paragraph, when the author refers to the places that Rushdie describes, and is also mentioned throughout the passage. Choice (G) is answered in the third paragraph. Choice (H) is answered in the first sentence of the second paragraph.

27.  B  The second paragraph gives Rushdie’s basic history and it states that he immigrated to England to attend school. Although he may have attended school in India, where he was born, the passage does not specify, making choice (B) the better answer.

28.  H  Most of the descriptions of Bombay are in the third paragraph, where it is described as a raucous place, filled with colors, scents that assault the nostrils, and people thronging the … teeming with life and all that life entails.The best match for that is choice (H). Although some people might find Bombay frustrating or chaotic, nowhere does the passage imply that Rushdie feels that way. Choice (J) incorrectly identifies a word used to describe Pakistan’s beauty (stark) with a city in India.

29.  A  The line being referenced (As interesting as his subjects are, it is the way that his prose draws readers into his world that makes his work so enduring) serves as a way for the author to transition from a discussion of Rushdie’s subject matter to his actual skill as a writer. The passage does not imply that Rushdie is too dependent on historical fact; the author of the passage seems to enjoy the historical nature of Rushdie’s writing. Eliminate choice (B). The paragraph also goes on to state that Rushdie is likely to remain well-known for many years, making choice (C) incorrect. Choice (D) goes too far, although the author does state that it is Rushdie’s skill rather than his subject matter that makes him great; nowhere is the subject matter called uninteresting.

30.  H  The final paragraph states that certainly the way his prose draws readers into his world has been the essential factor in making his work so enduring. Choice (F) is incorrect because it is too specific to Pakistan. Choice (G) incorrectly focuses on the partition of India, which is mentioned but is not part of Rushdie’s contribution to literature. Choice (J) is incorrect because the passage deals more with the writing’s ability to speak to readers than its literal beauty.

31.  D  Hypnotic analgesia re-evaluate and manage a painful stimulus, which is best reflected in choice (D). Choice (A) is a literal misinterpretation of essentially change their brains. Choice (B) suggests that hypnotic analgesia can be used to treat those diseases, rather than managing the pain felt from those diseases. Choice (C) is not supported by any evidence in the passage.

32.  G  The question asks you about the detection of pain, which according to the passage follows four pathways. Choice (G) correctly summarizes the first three pathways: sensory neurons detect stimuli from damaged tissues, the signals are transmitted to the spinal cord, and then the information is relayed to structures of the brain. The sympathetic nervous system is not mentioned in this process, so eliminate choices (F), (H), and (J).

33.  B  The exercise routines mentioned in the first paragraph involve more than cardiovascular activity by focusing on the breath and mental imagery, which is said to improve overall health, but nutritious diet is not mentioned. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are supported in the discussions of mindful movement exercises.

34.  F  With the sentence When the central nervous system perceives a threat, the sympathetic nervous system is engaged, the nervous system is described as triggered, so choice (F) is the best answer. Choices (G), (H), and (J) do not fit the context of the passage.

35.  C  The limbic system is the brain center for emotion, memory, and autonomic nervous system as well as central representation; choices (A), (B), and (D) are all true. Muscle movement was never mentioned directly in the passage.

36.  H  The passage states that the researchers have begun to delve deeper into mind-body therapy efficacy, thus choice (H) is the supported answer. The passage states that biomedicine has been slower to embrace these therapies, but not that it has rejected them, so eliminate choice (G). The passage states that mind-body therapy is increasingly popular, but does not indicate it is being used in place of biomedicine, so eliminate choice (F). Although research has shown prolonged beneficial effects from mind-body therapy, there is no evidence cited in the passage to show that these therapies have been successful in curing many diseases and conditions, so eliminate choice (J).

37.  D  Mind-body therapies may alter responses to stressors so that the parasympathetic nervous system is engaged, rather than the sympathetic nervous system, which activates the so-called fight or flight response, choice (D). The passage states that mind-body therapies may provoke positive reactions, but they do not impede the actual biological responses of the nervous system, so choice (A) should be eliminated. Effective mind-body therapies engage the parasympathetic, not the sympathetic, nervous system, so eliminate choice (B), and because these therapies do not act on the stressors themselves, only on our responses to them, choice (C) should be eliminated.

38.  F  As stated in paragraph 4, fight-or-flight responses had adaptive functions in ancestral conditions. Such responses are automatic and would be expected to provoke the processes discussed in Paragraph 3: The sympathetic nervous system releases stress hormones, such as cortisol. Thus, choice (F) is the credited response. Threats are perceived by the central nervous system, not stress responses, so eliminate choice (H). Prolonged stress responses may result in negative health consequences, such as suppressed immune activity, but the passage does not suggest that they directly lead to suppressed activity, eliminating choice (G). Decreased muscle tension results when the parasympathetic nervous system is engaged, and is mentioned in the passage as a benefit of conscious mind-body responses to stressors, so eliminate choice (J).

39.  C  The final paragraph states that more investigation is needed to determine the influence of a number of possible outside factors. Thus it can be inferred that research into mind-body therapy could be affected by external variables. Because more investigation is needed to determine the influence of outcome expectations, these factors may not be presently controlled for. Therefore, choice (C) is the best answer. There is no evidence to support choice (A), which implies that researchers should manipulate their results to make their studies look good. Although the Western therapies have researched mind-body therapies, the passage does not state that research results are valid only for Western therapies, so eliminate choice (B). Mind-body therapies alter pain experience and stress responses, but they do not eliminate pain or fight stress, so eliminate choice (D).

40.  H  The fifth paragraph states that mind-body therapies help to regulate stress by engaging the parasympathetic nervous system, which counteracts the negative effects of the fight-or-flight response. If the therapies were ineffective, then the parasympathetic would not be engaged, eliminating choice (G). There is no evidence to support the increase or decrease in pain detection or spinal cord activity, eliminating choice (F) and (J). Choice (H) is the best answer because the fight-or-flight reaction is a stress response, the prolonged effects of which can result in negative health consequences.


  1.  C  The moon blocks the transmission of the Sun’s rays over a range of 0.52 degrees. The lunar orbiter at Point P is located within this range of 0.52 degrees, so he or she is able to view only the moon and the Earth. Therefore, choice (C) is the best answer.

  2.  F  Figure 1 shows that during a solar eclipse, the moon does not allow the transmission of the Sun’s rays to the Earth. Therefore, the Sun’s rays stop transmitting forward and do not continue to the Earth’s surface, so choice (F) is the best answer.

  3.  B  The water level is highest on the first day at around t = 0 hours. The water level is highest on the next day at around t = 26 hours. The difference in time between these instances is 24 hours, so choice (B) is the best answer.

  4.  G  According to Figure 2, during the 60-hour period, the ocean surface level had a maximum of 6 feet above mean sea level and a minimum of 1 foot below mean sea level (−1 feet). Of the choices provided, only the month of March shows this exact range, so choice (G) is the best answer.

  5.  D  Figure 2 indicates a water level of 6 feet at t = 0. The water then falls until about t = 8 hours when it reaches about −1 feet. Then, the water level rises again, reaching about 2 feet at t = 12 hours. Thus, choice (D) is correct.

  6.  G  Examine the shale layer in Figure 2 closely—given the choices in the answers, find which site or city has the thickest layer of shale. The shale layers at Middleton at Site 1 clearly go deeper than those at Site 3 and West Union, so you can eliminate choices (H) and (J). Between Middleton and Site 1, look closely to see that the highest and lowest extremes in Site 1 are farther apart—the best answer is choice (G).

  7.  A  From Figure 2, the limestone layer appears to increase in thickness as you move from Site 2 toward Site 3. Therefore, answer choices (B), (C), and (D) may be eliminated.

  8.  H  Examine Figure 2; the shale layer at Site 2 is slightly thicker than that of Site 3, eliminating answer choices (F) and (J). A comparison of the shale thickness at Sites 1 and 2 shows that the shale layer at Site 2 is slightly less thick than that of Site 1, eliminating choice (G).

  9.  A  Based on Figure 3, at greater depths below the surface the number of counts of uranium decreases. Therefore, the greatest counts of uranium should be observed closest to the surface as seen in choice (A).

10.  G  Examine Figure 2: Site 2 exhibits 8 counts of Uranium in the deepest layer. Using the equation given in Figure 3, the age of the rock at Site 2 is most nearly 8 (64/8) times 700 million or 5600 million years. Of the answer choices, only choice (G) matches this age.

11.  C  There is no mention of distance shot in Experiment 3, therefore answer choices (A) and (B) can be eliminated. Choice (D) is irrelevant to the experiment’s results. As described, the results of Experiment 3 center around the visibility of bubbles in the cola, so choice (C) is best.

12.  J  For this question, look at the before shaking column of the two tables. Trials 3 and 5 both have distances of 6.42 meters.

13.  D  Experiment 2 asks you to determine how shaking the water gun affects how far the water gun shoots the flat-tasting cola. Neither density nor bubbles are addressed. In Table 2, compare the columns labeled before shakingand after shaking. In both trials listed, shaking the water gun decreased the distance shot.

14.  H  If you’re not sure whether to answer Yes or No, make sure you look at the reasons presented in each answer choice. In Trial 5, before the water gun was shaken, it had been 1 hour since the gun had last been shaken. Experiment 3 addresses how quickly the bubbles generated by shaking the water gun disappear. It suggests that 10 minutes after shaking, some bubbles are still present, but by 1 hour after shaking, the bubbles have all disappeared. Therefore, choice (H) is correct.

15.  D  In this hypothetical trial, the cola is shaken, let sit for ten minutes, shot, shaken, and shot again (Trial 4); then let sit for an hour, shot, shaken, and shot again (Trial 5); and finally let sit for another hour and shot with the distance of the shot measured (the hypothetical test in this question). By comparing Trial 5 before the gun has been shaken with Trial 4 after the gun has been shaken, you know that letting the flat-cola-filled water gun sit for an hour after shaking it eliminates the effects of any previous shaking. This is to say that in the hour between Trial 4 after shaking and Trial 5 before shaking, the distance shot goes from 5.49 meters to 6.42 meters—back to the same distance as never having been shaken at all (cf., Trial 3 before shaking). Therefore, after an additional shaking and hour sitting, you should expect the cola to travel 6.42 meters.

16.  G  From Experiment 3, bubbles are visible 10 minutes after shaking and not visible 1 hour after shaking. Similarly, from Trial 4, you know that 10 minutes after the gun has been shaken, the bubbles still reduce the distance of the shot. From Trial 5, you know that the bubbles do not reduce the distance of the shot 1 hour after the gun has been shaken. Therefore, the time necessary for the bubbles to stop having an effect on the distance shot must be between 10 minutes and 1 hour—choice (G).

17.  D  According to Figure 1, the greatest reflectance for blue-green algae occurs around 550 nm. According to Table 1, a wavelength of 550 nm is associated with the color green, making choice (D) correct.

18.  H  Photosynthesis is the chemical reaction that identifies autotrophic organisms, which make their own food, specifically sugar. Binary fission is the asexual reproduction of bacteria. Condensation is the transition of water from gas to liquid. Respiration is the opposite reaction of photosynthesis, breaking down glucose rather than making it.

19.  A  Choice (A), 400 nm, is the only choice where the green algae curve is higher than the diatoms curve. For all of the other choices, the diatoms curve is higher than the green algae curve, so the relative reflectance is higher for diatoms.

20.  J  Protists are organisms which cannot be classified as plants or animals. They can be one or many celled, but are always simple in construction. Choice (J) is correct because all algae are protists.

21.  B  The first paragraph of the passage tells you that as the amount of algae in a water sample increases, the water sample reflects light more like the algae so you know that all you need to do with this question is look for the algae that reflects light like the water sample. The best way to figure out this question is to quickly locate the high and low points on the water sample graph. The water sample has peaks at 550 nm and 0.08 reflectance and at 700 nm and 0.07 reflectance. The water sample has low points at 350 nm and 0.03 reflectance and at about 660 nm and 0.04 reflectance. Now, look at the algae graph. Once you match those points to the algae graph, it is easy to see the choice (B), diatoms, is the correct answer.

22.  H  To get through this question quickly, you can try to estimate. Because temperature is rising as you go down Table 1, and density is falling, the additional sample would be a new line under Sample V. Solution mass is falling in the table, so eliminate choice (J). To decide among the remaining choices, note that the falling solution mass, while not linear, declines in relatively small increments and never more than .5 g. Thus, a reasonable guess would be choice (H). To be certain of the answer, focus on the density, which we know by looking at Experiments 1 and 2 together is the more important factor (mass fell even when temperature was held constant). In Experiment 1, 150 mL of each solution is measured in the graduated cylinder. Multiplying this volume by the density of the solution will give the mass.

Either solve by long multiplication, or eliminate choices (F) and (G) by expanding the above expression:

mass = (1.018 g/mL)(150 mL)

mass = (100 g/mL)(1.5 mL) + (1.8 g/mL)(1.5 mL)

The last product above works out to 2.7 g, so only choice (H) is possible.

23.  A  All samples in Table 2 are at 10°C according to the description of Experiment 2. Salinity of 2.50% is not directly listed, but it does fall between those of samples VI and VII. Given that all samples are at the same temperature, the density of the proposed solution will fall between that of samples VI and VII.

24.  H  According to Experiment 2, where all water samples have a temperature of 10°C, the given salinity of 2.35% matches up most closely with the salinity in Sample VII. Looking at the results of Experiment 3 for Sample VII, U3 sank and X2 remained afloat. This eliminates choices (G) and (J). Since the claim in the question states that U3 will function well at the surface of the water, the data do NOT support this. U3 will sink in this environment and therefore cannot operate at the surface, eliminating choice (F).

25.  D  According to Table 3, all prototypes show a pattern of floating in samples toward the top of the table, and sinking in samples toward the bottom of the table. R5 has the same results as choice (A), X1 and X2 each have the same results as choice (B), and U3 has the same results as choice (C). However, a similar pattern to choice (D) cannot be found. If the new prototype did not float in water samples IV and V, it cannot possibly float in samples VI and VII because these water samples are less dense.

26.  H  According to the description of Experiment 1, the graduated cylinder was used to measure 150 mL of the solution. A mL is a unit of volume. Graduated cylinders are primarily used for accurate and precise measurements of volume. Mass is best assessed with a balance, eliminating choice (F). Salinity is typically measured indirectly through electrical conductivity, eliminating choice (G). Thermometers are used to measure temperature, eliminating choice (J).

27.  A  In Table 3, prototype U3 floated in Sample V but sank in Sample VI. The density of an object must be less than that of the liquid for the object to float. If the density of the object exceeds that of the surrounding liquid, it will sink. Therefore, the density of U3 must be between the densities of Samples V and VI. The density of Sample V is 1.022 g/mL according to Table 1, and the density of Sample VI is 1.020 g/mL according to Table 2. Only choice (A) lists a value between these limits.

28.  J  According to Table 1, only the haloarchaeal and bacterial cells show + signs for either acid or CO2 presence under green light. Therefore, choice (J) is the best answer.

29.  B  A plant cell alone produces only CO2 and absorbs most of the light (i.e., has low transmittance) in the presence of red light. A haloarchaeal cell alone produces only acid and absorbs most of the light (i.e., has low transmittance) in the presence of green light. Since these two cell types do not interfere with each other, they will most likely continue to have production of CO2 and low transmittance in the presence of red light, as well as the production of acid and low transmittance in the presence of green light. Choice (B) summarizes this.

30.  G  Only the plant and bacterium produce CO2 in the presence of red light, so you can immediately eliminate choices (F) and (H). Then, under the green light, the bacterium produces both acid and CO2 and the plant produces neither, making choice (G) the best answer.

31.  C  According to Experiment 1, the production of acid is a sign of growth. According to Experiment 2, low transmittance indicates that light is being absorbed by pigments to generate energy. The evidence that haloarchaea use light to generate energy and grow must include production of acid and low transmittance. These are both seen only in the presence of green light, so choice (C) is the best answer.

32.  G  In red light, the plant cell Rosa carolina will produce CO2 but not acid. When CO2 is present, a gas bubble appears above the solution. If acid is not present, then the solution appears colored. The illustration in choice (G) best represents this.

33.  C  The results of Experiment 1 show that bacteria and haloarchaea produce different products in the presence of red and green light. The passage does not mention any other relationship between haloarchaea and bacteria. Therefore, the best answer is choice (C): The two types of cells show different growth patterns, so we cannot conclude that they are closely related.

34.  G  The second sentence of the last paragraph for the 3-Domain Hypothesis implies that the more different the genetic sequence of rRNA, the farther back in time two groups of organisms diverged or split on the evolutionary tree. Similar genetic sequences would imply more closely related species, eliminating choice (F). A relationship between ester or ether linkages and divergence is not discussed in the passage, eliminating choices (H) and (J).

35.  D  Phospholipids have membranes but are not organelles themselves, eliminating choice (A). Ribosomes are not described as membrane-bound organelles in the passage, and the introduction implies that the Archaea have ribosomes because they have rRNA, eliminating choices (B) and (C). Nuclei are membrane-bound organelles found only in eukaryotes.

36.  J  The last paragraph states that eukaryotes and prokaryotes have ester linkages in their cell membranes, eliminating choice (F). The introduction defines the difference between eukaryotes and prokaryotes as the presence or absence of membrane-bound organelles, eliminating choice (G). Prokaryotes reproduce asexually as mentioned in the 2-Domain Hypothesis, eliminating choice (H). All of the organisms described in the passage are composed of cells.

37.  C  The scientist supporting the 2-Domain Hypothesis opens the argument by defining the Archaea as prokaryotes. The introduction states the Archaea contain rRNA, eliminating choice (A). Although ether linkages are found in the Archaea, this is an argument proposed by the scientist supporting the 3-Domain Hypothesis, eliminating choice (B). Protein synthesis can occur in the cytoplasm of all living organisms, and is not mentioned as a defining characteristic of any of the domains in the passage, eliminating choice (D).

38.  F  The observation of cellular metabolism similar to that found in eukaryotes discredits the arguments mentioned in the 2-Domain Hypothesis, eliminating choices (H) and (J). Since the metabolic process is similar to eukaryotes, choice (G) is also eliminated.

39.  C  Neither scientist makes the claim that the Archaea have membrane-bound organelles, eliminating choice (A). Microscopes play a vital role in accurately describing organisms, and this is not mentioned one way or the other in the passage, eliminating choice (B). The distance in relationship between eukaryotes and the Archaea is not the primary argument of each scientist. They are arguing more about whether to break up prokaryotes into bacteria and the Archaea, eliminating choice (D). The fact that the Archaea have ether linkages instead of ester linkages is mentioned by the scientist arguing for the 3-Domain Hypothesis as a significantly distinguishing characteristic, which allows the Archaea to occupy harsh environments.

40.  G  Phospholipids are described in the passage as having a water-soluble subunit and a water-insoluble subunit. Therefore, it makes the most sense that the water-soluble subunits (circles) would arrange in a manner such that they were exposed to water while keeping the water-insoluble subunits (lines) away from the water.


Essay Checklist

  1. The Introduction

Did you

○ start with a topic sentence that paraphrases or restates the prompt?

○ clearly state your position on the issue?

  2. Body Paragraph 1

Did you

○ start with a transition/topic sentence that discusses the opposing side of the argument?

○ give an example of a reason that one might agree with the opposing side of the argument?

○ clearly state that the opposing side of the argument is wrong or flawed?

○ show what is wrong with the opposing side’s example or position?

  3. Body Paragraphs 2 and 3

Did you

○ start with a transition/topic sentence that discusses your position on the prompt?

○ give one example or reason to support your position?

○ show the grader how your example supports your position?

○ end the paragraph by restating your thesis?

  4. Conclusion

Did you

○ restate your position on the issue?

○ end with a flourish?

  5. Overall

Did you

○ write neatly?

○ avoid multiple spelling and grammar mistakes?

○ try to vary your sentence structure?

○ use a few impressive-sounding words?