Cracking the GRE Premium Edition (2016)

Part VI
Practice Tests

18Practice Test 1

19Practice Test 1: Answers and Explanations

20Practice Test 2

21Practice Test 2: Answers and Explanations

TEST INSTRUCTIONS

It’s important to become familiar with the instructions for the test now, so that you don’t waste time figuring them out on test day.

General Instructions

Each exam consists of six sections—two Analytical Writing sections, two Verbal Reasoning sections, and two Quantitative Reasoning sections. The Analytical Writing sections will always be first. The Verbal and Quantitative Reasoning sections may appear in any order. You will have 30 minutes for each Analytic Writing section, 30 minutes for each Verbal, and 35 minutes for each Quantitative Reasoning section. If desired, you may take a 10-minute break after Section 4. Remember that during the actual test, there may be an additional verbal or quantitative experimental section.

Section 1

30 minutes

Analytical Writing

Section 2

30 minutes

Analytical Writing

Section 3

30/35 minutes

Verbal or Quantitative Reasoning

Section 4

30/35 minutes

Verbal or Quantitative Reasoning

Section 5

30/35 minutes

Verbal or Quantitative Reasoning

Section 6

30/35 minutes

Verbal or Quantitative Reasoning

When taking a Verbal or Quantitative Reasoning section, you are free to skip questions that you might have difficulty answering and come back to them later during the time allotted for that section. You may also change your response to any question in a section during the time allotted to work on that section. You may not go back to an earlier section of the test after time for that section runs out.


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Analytical Writing Instructions

Issue Topic

You will be given a brief statement on an issue of general interest and specific instructions on how to respond to that issue. You will have 30 minutes to plan and write a response in which you develop a position on the issue. Make sure that you respond to the specific instructions and support your position on the issue with reasons and examples drawn from such areas as your reading, experience, observations, and/or academic studies.

Before you begin writing, you may want to think for a few minutes about the passage and the instructions and then outline your response. Be sure to develop your analysis fully and organize it coherently. Leave a minute or two at the end to reread what you have written and make any revisions you think are necessary.

Argument Topic

You will be given a short passage that presents an argument, or an argument to be completed, and specific instructions on how to respond to that passage. You will have 30 minutes to plan and write a response in which you analyze the passage. Note that you are NOT being asked to present your own views on the subject. Make sure that you respond to the specific instructions and support your analysis with relevant reasons and/or examples.

Before you begin writing, you may want to think for a few minutes about the passage and the instructions and then outline your response. Be sure to develop your analysis fully and organize it coherently. Leave a minute or two at the end to reread what you have written and make any revisions you think are necessary.

Verbal Reasoning Instructions

Each Verbal Reasoning section is 30 minutes long and has 20 questions. For some questions, you will be instructed to choose one or more answer choices. The instructions may or may not specify the number of answers you must choose. If the number of answers is specified, you must choose all of the correct answers in order to have your response counted as correct. If the number is not specified, choose all that correctly answer the question. No credit will be given if fewer or more than all of the correct answers are chosen.

Quantitative Reasoning Instructions

Each Quantitative Reasoning section is 35 minutes long and has 20 questions. You will be provided with a five-function calculator—one with addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, and square-root features—during Quantitative Reasoning sections.

For some questions, you will be instructed to choose one or more answer choices. The instructions may or may not specify the number of answers you must choose. If the number of answers is specified, you must choose all of the correct answers in order to have your response counted as correct. If the number is not specified, choose all that correctly answer the question. No credit will be given if fewer or more than all of the correct answers are chosen.

Some questions will require you to enter your own answer. If the question provides a single response space, enter a single number. You may enter negative signs and decimal points. If the question tells you to round your answer, do so. Otherwise, enter the entire answer. If the question provides two response spaces, you must enter your answer in the form of a fraction. You are not required to enter fractions in their most reduced form. If you are aware of more than one correct response, you should enter only one of them.

Some questions will ask you to fill blanks in the text by clicking to select from a list of choices. Sometimes all of the choices will be used, and sometimes only some of the choices will be used. The correct answer always requires you to put a different choice in every blank.

Note on Numbers and Figures

Numbers: All numbers used are real numbers.

Figures: The position of points, angles, regions, and so on can be assumed to be in the order shown, and angle measures can be assumed to be positive. Lines shown as straight can be assumed to be straight. Figures can be assumed to lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated. Any other figures are not necessarily drawn to scale, unless a note states that a figure is drawn to scale.

Chapter 18

Practice Test 1

Click here to download a PDF of Practice Test 1.

SECTION 1: ISSUE TOPIC

Directions:

You will be given a brief quotation that states or implies an issue of general interest and specific instructions on how to respond to that issue. You will have 30 minutes to plan and compose a response in which you develop a position on the issue according to the specific instructions. A response to any other issue will receive a score of zero.

“Governments are justified in circumventing civil laws when doing so is vital to the protection of national security.”

Write an essay in which you take a position on the statement above. In developing and supporting your position, you should consider ways in which the statement might or might not hold true.

SECTION 2: ARGUMENT TOPIC

Directions:

You will be given a short passage that presents an argument, or an argument to be completed, and specific instructions on how to respond to that passage. You will have 30 minutes to plan and compose a response in which you analyze the passage according to the specific instructions. A response to any other argument will receive a score of zero.

Note that you are NOT being asked to present your own views on the subject. Make sure that you respond to the specific instructions and support your analysis with relevant reasons and/or examples.

The following is from a recent email from the Diord Corp. Human Resources Manager: “Tobor Technologies found that mental health problems and mental illness were responsible for about 15 percent of employee sick days. Tobor amended its employee insurance plan so that workers receive the same coverage for mental illness as they do for physical illness. In addition, the company hired an on-site psychologist and created a system that allows workers to schedule confidential counseling appointments. After one year, the number of sick days used by employees declined by 10 percent. Diord Corp. has had an increase in employee sick days over the past two years, so we should introduce a similar insurance plan and counseling program. These measures will surely reduce employee absenteeism and cause an increase in productivity.”

Write a response in which you examine the argument’s unstated assumptions, making sure to explain how the argument depends on the assumptions and what the implications are if the assumptions prove unwarranted.

SECTION 3: QUANTITATIVE REASONING

For each of Questions 1 to 7, compare Quantity A and Quantity B, using additional information centered above the two quantities if such information is given. Select one of the following four answer choices and fill in the corresponding circle to the right of the question.

1 of 20

Line AB is parallel to CD.

Line BC is parallel to AD.

Quantity A

Quantity B

s

t

Quantity A is greater.

Quantity B is greater.

The two quantities are equal.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

2 of 20

A certain punch is created by mixing two parts soda and three parts ice cream. The soda is 4 parts sugar, 5 parts citric acid, and 11 parts other ingredients. The ice cream is 3 parts sugar, 2 parts citric acid, and 15 parts other ingredients.

Quantity A

Quantity B

Parts sugar in the punch

Parts citric acid in the punch

Quantity A is greater.

Quantity B is greater.

The two quantities are equal.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

3 of 20

The average (arithmetic mean) high temperature for x days is 70 degrees. The addition of one day with a high temperature of 75 degrees increases the average to 71 degrees.

Quantity A

Quantity B

x

5

Quantity A is greater.

Quantity B is greater.

The two quantities are equal.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

4 of 20

Each angle in ∆QRS has a degree measurement of either x or y and the angles are expressed by the equation 2x + y = 180.

Quantity A

Quantity B

Perimeter of QRS

17

Quantity A is greater.

Quantity B is greater.

The two quantities are equal.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

5 of 20

The scores for the 500 students who took Ms. Johnson’s final exam have a normal distribution. There are 80 students who scored at least 92 points out of a possible 100 total points and 10 students who scored at or below 56.

Quantity A

Quantity B

The average (arithmetic mean) score on the final exam

87

Quantity A is greater.

Quantity B is greater.

The two quantities are equal.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

6 of 20

AB is parallel to CD.

AD is parallel to BC.

2AD = EG

Quantity A

Quantity B

The area of ABCD

The area of EFG

Quantity A is greater.

Quantity B is greater.

The two quantities are equal.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

7 of 20

(3x − 4y)(3x + 4y) = 2

Quantity A

Quantity B

9x2 − 16y2

4

Quantity A is greater.

Quantity B is greater.

The two quantities are equal.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

8 of 20

If 8a − 2 = 22, then 4a − 1 =

2

11

12

44

9 of 20

Twenty percent of the sweaters in a store are white. Of the remaining sweaters, 40 percent are brown, and the rest are blue. If there are 200 sweaters in the store, then how many more blue sweaters than white sweaters are in the store?

10 of 20

 =

  0

  1

  4

12

16

Questions 11 through 14 refer to the following graph.

11 of 20

What was the total number of subscriptions for Newsmagazine x during the year in which Newsmagazine x accounted for 14.6 percent of nationwide news magazine subscriptions?

1,020

1,980

6,300

7,000

7,200

12 of 20

In which of the following years did subscriptions to Newsmagazine z account for approximately of the total nationwide magazine subscriptions?

2009

2006

2003

2000

1997

13 of 20

What was the approximate percent increase in nationwide subscriptions to newsmagazines between 1995 and 1996 ?

  4%

11%

26%

51%

73%

14 of 20

In 1998, what was the approximate number of subscriptions to newsmagazines nationwide?

  3,000

13,000

16,000

20,000

67,000

15 of 20

If a = (27)(3−2) and x = (6)(3−1), then which of the following is equivalent to (12)(3x) × (15)(2a) ?

5(−2245)(320)

 

 

5(24)(38)

5(2245)(320)

16 of 20

Jill has received 8 of her 12 evaluation scores. So far, Jill’s average (arithmetic mean) is 3.75 out of a possible 5. If Jill needs an average of 4.0 points to get a promotion, which list of scores will allow Jill to receive her promotion?

Indicate all such sets.

3.0, 3.5, 4.75, 4.75

3.5, 4.75, 4.75, 5.0

3.25, 4.5, 4.75, 5.0

3.75, 4.5, 4.75, 5.0

17 of 20

In the figure above, if RSTU is a rectangle, what is the value of a + b + c + d + e + f ?

18 of 20

If the probability of choosing 2 red marbles without replacement from a bag of only red and blue marbles is  and there are 3 red marbles in the bag, what is the total number of marbles in the bag?

  10

  11

  55

110

165

19 of 20

All first-year students at Red State University must take calculus, English composition, or both. If half of the 2,400 first-year students at Red State University take calculus and half do not, and one-third of those who take calculus also take English composition, how many students take English composition?

   400

   800

1,200

1,600

2,000

20 of 20

If  is an integer, which of the following represents all possible values of x ?

0 ≤ x ≤ 10

0 < x < 9

0 ≤ x < 10

1 ≤ x ≤ 10

1 < x < 10

SECTION 4: VERBAL REASONING

For questions 1 through 6, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.

1 of 20

Since a large amount of the ore frequently located in riverbeds is (i)____________on the earth’s surface, where the processing of chemicals is less costly, recovery of underwater ore is not likely to become a (ii)____________procedure.

2 of 20

It would be (i)____________for our leaders, given their responsibilities as democratically elected officials, to neglect to do everything they could to (ii)____________an entirely (iii)____________problem.

3 of 20

Despite her mentor’s advice that she attempt to sound consistently ____________, the graduate student often resorted to using slang when presenting significant parts of her thesis, her habitual speech patterns overriding her years of learning.

4 of 20

Although she felt Steve (i)____________the subtlety of the delicious stew recipe with his addition of the sweet potato, she thought the pungent onion (ii)____________the otherwise (iii)____________taste combination.

5 of 20

At first, a still-life painting can appear quite (i)____________ , its focus on such everyday objects as flowers or fruits apparently uninspired. In the hands of (ii)____________painter, however, careful attention to slight shifts of color and texture can lead to a truly (iii)____________ and exemplary painting.

6 of 20

The leaders of Ukraine’s “Orange Revolution” were a study in contrasts. At the center of the political storm stood Viktor Yushchenko, his once (i)____________ face transformed into a monstrous mask by dioxin poisoning; but, at his side, no one could miss the (ii)____________Yulia Tymoshenko, soon to become the world’s only prime minister to adorn the covers of fashion magazines.

For each of Questions 7 to 11, select one answer choice unless otherwise instructed.

Questions 7 through 9 are based on the following reading passage.

In analyzing the poetry of Mona Feather, we are confronted with three different yardsticks by which to measure her work. We could consider her poems as the product of a twentieth-century artist in the tradition of James Joyce, T.S. Eliot, and Wallace Stevens. However, to do so would be to ignore a facet that informs every word she writes and that stems from her identity as a woman. Yet, to characterize her solely as a woman poet is to deny her cultural heritage, for Mona Feather is also the first modern poet of stature who is also an American Indian.

Stanley Wilson has argued compellingly that the huge popularity Feather enjoys among the Indian reservation school population of the United States is creating a whole new generation of poetry enthusiasts in an age when the reading of poetry is on the wane. While this is undoubtedly true, Mr. Wilson’s praise gives the impression that Feather’s readership is limited to her own culture—an impression which hints that Mr. Wilson is himself measuring her by only one criterion. Radical feminist writers have long found in Feather’s poetry a sense of self-pride which strikes a chord with their own more political philosophies. Her imagery, which always made use of the early Native American traditions in which the woman had an important role, was seen as the awakened sensibility of a kindred spirit.

Yet for all the “feminist” touches in her writing, it would be a disservice to consign Feather to the ranks of politicized writers, for her message is deeper than that. The despair that characterized twentieth-century modern poets is to be found in Mona Feather’s work as well; she writes of the American Indians of the 1930s confined to ever-shrinking reservations and finds in that a metaphor for all of modern mankind trapped on a shrinking earth of limited resources.

7 of 20

The primary purpose of the passage is to

describe the work of Mona Feather

compare Feather with Joyce, Eliot, and Stevens

show Feather’s roots in her Native American heritage

argue that Mona Feather’s work can be looked at in several different ways

discuss the women’s movement in America

8 of 20

The passage implies that the author believes Stanley Wilson’s view of Feather is

a compelling and complete assessment of her work

focused too much on her status as a Native American poet

meant to disguise his opinion of Feather as a poet lacking in talent

critical of Native American children’s literary judgment

based on all major themes and images in her poetry

9 of 20

The author mentions James Joyce, T.S. Eliot, and Wallace Stevens in order to

compare the political messages in Feather’s work to those in the work of other authors

highlight the radical differences between male and female poets in the twentieth century

contrast Feather’s thematic choices with those of her contemporaries

enumerate a list of artists whose sensibilities made them Feather’s kindred spirits

describe a critical context in which Feather’s work can be analyzed

Questions 10 through 11 are based on the following reading passage.

Among the more interesting elements of etymology is the attempt to derive the meaning of seemingly nonsensical expressions. Take, for instance, the increasingly archaic rural phrase “to buy a pig in a poke.” For centuries, the expression has been used to signify the purchase of an item without full knowledge of its condition. It relates to the common Renaissance practice of securing suckling pigs for transport to market in a poke, or drawstring bag. Unscrupulous sellers would sometimes attempt to dupe purchasers by replacing the suckling pig with a cat, considered worthless at market. An unsuspecting or naïve buyer might fail to confirm the bag’s contents; a more urbane buyer, though, would be sure to check and—should the seller be dishonest—“let the cat out of the bag.”

10 of 20

Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.

Which of the following phrases from the passage would help the reader infer the meaning of the word urbane as used in context?

“increasingly archaic rural phrase”

“without full knowledge”

“unsuspecting or naïve buyer”

11 of 20

Select the sentence in which the author provides a definition for an antiquated term that may be unfamiliar to the reader.

For questions 12 through 15, select the two answer choices that, when used to complete the sentence, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

12 of 20

Although she was such a bad-mannered child that she was sent to a boarding school, as an adult she is the very model of ____________.

friendliness

diffidence

propriety

reticence

decorum

brashness

13 of 20

Politicians sometimes appear to act in a manner that is almost____________; however, when all the information is released after the fact, it is apparent that they were acting according to a deliberate plan.

pithy

conventional

conformist

whimsical

flawless

capricious

14 of 20

Forced to take an alternate road when a massive oil spill closed the highway, the two-hour detour made their already arduous trip even more ____________.

irksome

onerous

facile

glib

implacable

immutable

15 of 20

Though many of her contemporaries found her odd, Ella Wilkins is now much admired for her ____________spirit, especially her willingness to reject prevailing feminine roles and to travel to foreign lands alone.

forlorn

magnanimous

adventurous

bellicose

desolate

doughty

For each of Questions 16 to 20, select one answer choice unless otherwise instructed.

16 of 20

Microfiber synthetics have been taking the place of natural fibers in an ever-increasing number of clothes because they provide the same durability and deplete fewer natural resources. A shirt made of microfiber synthetics is, however, three times as expensive to produce as a natural-fiber shirt. It follows that the substitution of microfiber synthetic clothes for natural-fiber clothes is, at this time, not recommended from a financial standpoint.

Which of the following statements, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?

A microfiber synthetic shirt costs one-half the price of a natural-fiber shirt to maintain.

The production of microfiber synthetic clothes necessitates garment factories to renovate obsolete machinery and to hire extra workers to operate the new machines.

The upkeep of natural-fiber shirts is far less expensive than the upkeep of any other natural-fiber garment in current production.

While producers anticipate that the cost of microfiber synthetics will remain stable, they recognize that the advent of recycling programs for natural fibers should bring down the costs of natural fibers.

The cost of providing stain guards for microfiber synthetic shirts would probably be greater than what garment producers now spend on stain guards for natural-fiber shirts.

Questions 17 through 18 are based on the following reading passage.

Scholars of early Buddhist art agree that Buddha images in human form emerged around the first century A.D. in the regions of Mathura, located in central India, and Gandhara, now part of Pakistan and Afghanistan. Uncertainty exists, however, about whether Mathura or Gandhara has the stronger claim to primacy. Those who believe that anthropomorphic sculptures of the Buddha first appeared in Gandhara point out that earlier Buddhist art was largely aniconic and that bas relief was far more common than sculpture. They argue that Greek influence in Gandhara promoted the development of the new style and form of representation of the divine. Other scholars make the case for indigenous development of such representations in Mathura, citing a centuries-long record of iconic art in pre-Buddhist traditions. They do not reject all foreign influence, but they argue that local traditions provided a strong foundation for the development of Buddhist sculpture.

Art historians bolster their arguments by highlighting distinctive features of the sculptures from each region. For example, the artists of Gandhara sculpted their Buddhas in heavy, pleated drapery, similar to that of Greek statues. Wavy lines indicating hair also reflect Greek influence. Mathura Buddhas, on the other hand, are portrayed wearing lighter robes draped in a monastic style, often with part of the shoulder and chest left bare. Elongated earlobes and strong facial features characterize Mathura images of the Buddha, whereas Gandhara images possess more angular features. Sorting out dates and directions of influence has proven difficult, but the totality of evidence suggests that the Buddha image evolved simultaneously in both regions and was shaped by the predominant cultural influences in each region.

17 of 20

Which of the following, if true, would those who believe that anthropomorphic images of Buddha originated in Gandhara be likely to cite as evidence for their viewpoint?

Pre-Buddhist subcultures in the Gandhara region created representations of their deities in human form.

Mathuran Buddhas’ lightweight robes appear to have been modeled on the real robes of people who lived in a warm climate.

Gandharan artists were isolated from the larger society and not exposed to influences from outside the region.

Rulers from the Mathura region had political ties to Greek rulers and frequently exchanged gifts with them.

The hairstyles worn by Gandharan Buddhas are similar to those depicted on Greek pottery from the same period.

18 of 20

According to the passage, Buddhist art

first appeared in regions that are now part of India, Pakistan, and Afghanistan

experienced a period during which human representations of the Buddha were not common

characteristically portrayed figures with elongated earlobes and strong facial features

began to appear in the medium of bas relief as a result of Greek influence

was more influenced by foreign artworks than by indigenous artistic traditions

Questions 19 through 20 are based on the following reading passage.

In 1887, Eugene Dubois began his search in Sumatra for the “missing link”—the being that would fill the evolutionary gap between ape and man. He discovered a fossilized human-like thighbone and a section of skull. He confirmed that these fossils were of significant age by examining other fossils in the same area. The thighbone’s shape indicated that it belonged to a creature that walked upright. Dubois estimated the size of the creature’s skull from the skull fragment and concluded that this creature’s brain volume was between that of the higher primates and that of current humans. Although the concept of “missing link” has changed dramatically and a recent analysis showed Dubois’s fossils to be far too recent for humans to have evolved from this “missing link,” the value of his discovery and the debate it generated is unquestionable.

19 of 20

Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.

The passage supplies information to answer which of the following questions?

What was the approximate age of the fossils found by Dubois?

Does Dubois’s find meet current definitions of the “missing link”?

Do the flaws in Dubois’s conclusions invalidate his work?

20 of 20

Select a sentence in which the author reaches a conclusion.

SECTION 5: QUANTITATIVE REASONING

For each of Questions 1 to 7, compare Quantity A and Quantity B, using additional information centered above the two quantities if such information is given. Select one of the following four answer choices and fill in the corresponding circle to the right of the question.

1 of 20

The circle with center R has a radius of 6 and is inscribed inside square ABCD.

Quantity A

Quantity B

The area of the largest triangle that can be drawn inside square ABCD

The area of the circle with center R

Quantity A is greater.

Quantity B is greater.

The two quantities are equal.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

2 of 20

xy ≠ 0

 = 632 and  = 158

Quantity A

Quantity B

x

y

Quantity A is greater.

Quantity B is greater.

The two quantities are equal.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

3 of 20

Quantity A

Quantity B

The remainder when 135 is divided by 7

The remainder when 135 is divided by 19

Quantity A is greater.

Quantity B is greater.

The two quantities are equal.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

4 of 20

a and b are integers.

a2 = b3

Quantity A

Quantity B

a

b

Quantity A is greater.

Quantity B is greater.

The two quantities are equal.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

5 of 20

ab < 0

 bc > 0

Quantity A

Quantity B

ac

0

Quantity A is greater.

Quantity B is greater.

The two quantities are equal.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

6 of 20

|x| = 6

y = x + 4

Quantity A

Quantity B

y

10

Quantity A is greater.

Quantity B is greater.

The two quantities are equal.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

7 of 20

A rectangular ribbon of width x is wrapped around the right circular cylinder with radius n shown above, encircling the cylinder without overlap. The area of the ribbon is equal to the area of the base of the cylinder.

Quantity A

Quantity B

x

n

Quantity A is greater.

Quantity B is greater.

The two quantities are equal.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

8 of 20

List A: 1, 2, 7, 8, 15, 2, 3, 5, 6, 13

x is the median of the even numbers in List A.

y is the median of the prime numbers in List A.

z is the median of the least and greatest numbers in List A.

Quantity A

Quantity B

The median of 2xy, and z

z

Quantity A is greater.

Quantity B is greater.

The two quantities are equal.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

9 of 20

Oil is pumped from a well at a rate of 500 gallons per hour. How many gallons of oil are pumped from the well in 3 hours and 15 minutes?

10 of 20

A certain pet store sells only dogs and cats. In March, the store sold twice as many dogs as cats. In April, the store sold twice the number of dogs that it sold in March, and three times the number of cats that it sold in March. If the total number of pets the store sold in March and April combined was 500, how many dogs did the store sell in March?

  80

100

120

160

180

11 of 20

In the coordinate plane, rectangle WXYZ has vertices at (−2, −1), (−2, y), (4, y), and (4, −1). If the area of WXYZ is 18, what is the length of its diagonal?

3

3

3

3

3

12 of 20

How many three-digit integers can be created from 5 distinct digits?

10

15

20

30

60

13 of 20

At Megalomania Industries, factory workers were paid $20 per hour in 1990 and $10 per hour in 2000. The CEO of Megalomania Industries was paid $5 million per year in 1990 and $50 million per year in 2000. The percent increase in the pay of Megalomania’s CEO from 1990 to 2000 was what percent greater than the percent decrease in the hourly pay of Megalomania’s factory workers over the same period?

   850%

   900%

   950%

1,700%

1,900%

Questions 14 through 16 refer to the following graph.

14 of 20

If there were 38 child safety organizations and the funds contributed to these organizations in September 1989 were evenly distributed, how much did each charity receive?

$12,000,000

  $9,400,000

  $2,500,000

     $250,000

       $38,000

15 of 20

From September 1985 to December 1989, what was the approximate ratio of private donations in millions for homeless aid to private donations in millions for animal rights?

20 : 9

3 : 2

4 : 3

9 : 7

6 : 5

16 of 20

Which of the following charitable causes received the least percent increase in private donations from September 1989 to October 1989 ?

Animal Rights

Disaster Relief

Homeless Aid

Environmental Protection

Child Safety

17 of 20

In the repeating decimal 0.0653906539…, the 34th digit to the right of the decimal point is

9

6

5

3

0

18 of 20

If 3x + 2y = 24, and = , then y =

19 of 20

If the average (arithmetic mean) of 6, 8, 10, and x is between 6 and 12, what is the greatest possible integer value of x ?

  8

11

20

28

44

20 of 20

If AB = BC, which of the following is an expression for the area of quadrilateral ABDE ?

a2 − b2

SECTION 6: VERBAL REASONING

For questions 1 through 6, select one entry for each blank from the corresponding column of choices. Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.

1 of 20

Many fashions that were considered daring in their time have been so widely worn and imitated that the (i)____________style is no longer seen as (ii)____________.

2 of 20

Western culture has so influenced Middle Eastern music that even the latter’s roles of composer and performer, at one time inseparable, have now begun to ____________.

3 of 20

Kazan was quickly (i)____________by many of his contemporaries for his transgression, who saw his testimony as treachery, an act of (ii)____________ which stained how they viewed him both as an artist and as a man. It was only by continually making films that he was able to (iii)____________ his perceived sins and achieve some measure of atonement.

4 of 20

Although tranquilizers usually have a ____________effect, this is not always the case, especially when the abuse of these drugs results in a failure to induce the much-desired sleep.

5 of 20

As a rule, (i)____________interpretations of events are rejected by modern scientists in their attempts to find secular insights into the matrix of causes and effects in our modern world. Paradoxically, this fact does not (ii)____________ the existence of individual scientists who possess views that may be (iii)____________with a belief in supernatural causes.

6 of 20

The Johnsons were not known for their (i)____________; at the very least, none of the family members was fearful of (ii)____________, of appearing or acting differently from other people.

For each of Questions 7 to 12, select one answer choice unless otherwise instructed.

Questions 7 through 10 are based on the following reading passage.

According to most scientists, the universe began approximately 10 to 15 billion years ago and has been expanding ever since. This theory, known as the Big Bang theory, is the fairly direct result of Hubble’s law, which states that objects farther away from Earth are receding faster than those closer. This expansion implies a singular point which all matter is expanding from.

Complicating the scientific explanation is that the Big Bang cannot be thought of as an explosion from some identifiable source—rather, space and time were created in the Big Bang. Furthermore, the relationship between distance and speed is not precisely linear. So, if one were to think of galaxies as particles created in a big bang, these galaxies have both a local component of motion, as well as playing a role in the overall expansion of the universe.

A further complication is that galactic distances are so great that galactic motion, even if the galaxies are moving at incredible speeds, is difficult to observe. Scientists must therefore rely on a “standard candle,” an object of known brightness within the galaxy they wish to observe. Using the inverse square law, scientists can then measure how far that galaxy is away from our own. For instance, suppose a supernova in galaxy A appears one hundred times as bright as one in galaxy B. By the inverse square law, galaxy B is ten times farther away than galaxy A, assuming, of course, that distance is the only factor affecting brightness.

7 of 20

It can be inferred from the sentence highlighted in the passage that a standard candle is useful to scientists for which of the following reasons?

Standard candles do not have their own locus of motion.

Standard candles more reliably adhere to the law of inverse squares than do other supernovas.

Only standard candles provide a known measure of brightness.

Knowledge of an object’s brightness allows scientists to measure the speed at which the object is moving toward Earth.

Knowledge of an object’s brightness allows scientists to accurately measure its distance from Earth.

8 of 20

Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.

According to the passage, if two astronomical objects of differing distances from Earth were observed, which of the following would be true of the object closer to Earth?

It would not be as bright as the object farther from Earth.

It would be younger than the object farther from Earth.

It would be traveling away from the Earth more slowly than the farther object.

9 of 20

It can be inferred from the passage that a standard candle may not provide an accurate measure of distance if

the galaxy being measured is moving too quickly

interstellar dust makes the object measured appear dimmer than it really is

if the galaxy being measured has a local component of measurement

the particles being measured do not completely accord with a linear motion

the galaxies being measured move at different speeds

10 of 20

According to the passage, if two supernovas are observed and one of those supernovas is brighter than the other, scientists can conclude that

the brighter supernova is moving closer to our galaxy at a higher speed

the precise location of the supernova is measurable

the brighter supernova may be closer to our own galaxy

the brighter supernova is farther away from Earth by a distance that is roughly inversely proportional to the dim supernova

the distance between the supernovas and our own galaxy is inversely proportional

Questions 11 through 12 are based on the following reading passage.

Throughout the twentieth century, it was accepted as fact that cells in our brains, called neurons, do not regenerate. Research by neurologist Elizabeth Gould overturned this core doctrine within the span of a few years. Her experiments on rats showed that even after suffering severe trauma, their brains were able to heal themselves by regenerating neurons. Gould’s findings have incited a flood of new research into applications that may take advantage of neurogenesis.

One such study examines the role of reduced neurogenesis among individuals suffering from depression. It is speculated that neurogenesis may contribute to an explanation for the so called “Prozac lag.” As an antidepressant, the immediate boost of serotonin caused by Prozac should have had instantaneous mood elevating effects. However, patients suffering from depression only begin to experience mood elevation weeks after beginning treatment. The study speculates that during this period, the brain may be regenerating neurons.

11 of 20

The author mentions the “Prozac lag” primarily in order to

raise a possible objection to a newly proposed theory

present a situation for which a new theory may serve an explanatory role

offer evidence that runs counter to a previously held belief

suggest a counterexample that undermines a newly proposed theory

provide supporting evidence that a newly discovered phenomenon may have unforeseen effects

12 of 20

In the second paragraph, select the sentence in which the author describes an unexpected observation.

For questions 13 through 16, select the two answer choices that, when used to complete the sentence, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

13 of 20

Plato, an important philosopher, is primarily known because he wrote down Socrates’s ____________ conversations. It is through Plato’s record of these dialogues that Socrates’s teachings have survived and continue to enlighten seekers of wisdom.

inspiring

edifying

tedious

grating

rousing

didactic

14 of 20

Even the colossal meal failed to ____________her voracious appetite.

cadge

exacerbate

provoke

satiate

mendicate

allay

15 of 20

Slicks of oil on a rain-soaked street are ____________ and beautiful, but the lovely rainbows they produce on the asphalt can seem rather ugly when one reflects upon the road hazards they create and the environmental damage they entail.

anodyne

iridescent

monocoque

pavonine

parietal

saturnine

16 of 20

He had not always been so callous, but with time he became ____________to the violence around him.

adorned

cauterized

sensitized

ostracized

inured

attuned

For each of Questions 17 to 20, select one answer choice unless otherwise instructed.

17 of 20

When the maker of Megapower, a vitamin supplement, modified its formula two years ago, Tasmania, an island off the coast of New Zealand, suffered a decrease in its export earnings. Tasmania’s only export, kiwi fruit, constitutes a substantial portion of the world supply of that fruit. Researchers concluded that the old Megapower formula contained natural kiwi extract, but the new formula does not.

Which of the following, if true, gives the strongest support for the researchers’ claim?

Some South American countries have begun to grow kiwi fruit successfully.

United States chemists have started development of a synthetic kiwi extract.

The manufacturers of Megapower chose not to renew their contract with the Tasmanian kiwi growers.

Imports of kiwi fruit have fallen in the country where Megapower is manufactured.

There was a marked drop in sales of a number of formerly profitable items that used kiwi as an ingredient.

Questions 18 through 20 are based on the following reading passage.

While art historians do not necessarily agree on the date of the birth of modern art, they do agree that mid-nineteenth century French art shows a clear and distinct break from tradition. Pressed to point to a single picture that represents the vanguard of the modern art movement, art historians will often point to Courbet’s The Painter’s Studio.

The peculiar subtitle of Courbet’s work, “Real allegory summing up a seven-year period of my life” confirms that Courbet was striving to do something strikingly original with his work. The argument has been made that the painting struck a blow for the independence of the artist, and that since Courbet’s work, artists have felt freed from the societal demands placed upon their work. Paintings prior to Courbet’s time were most often focused on depicting events from the Bible, history, or literature. With his singular painting, Courbet promulgated the idea that an artist is capable of representing only that which he can experience through his senses of sight and touch; the true artist will then be compelled to make his representation as simply and directly as possible.

18 of 20

Which of the following would most effectively replace the word promulgated as it is used in the context of the passage?

Displayed

Disseminated

Proclaimed

Concealed

Secreted

19 of 20

Select the sentence in the passage that best explains the effect of Courbet’s work on other artists.

20 of 20

The effect that Courbet had on painting is most analogous to which situation?

An avant-garde writer who subverts novelistic conventions

A machinist who tinkers and improves his invention

A watercolor painter who paints in the same style as his peers

A scientist who comes up with a unified theory of several discordant scientific ideas

A seamstress who makes a ball gown using several different types of fabric