LSAT For Dummies, 2nd Edition (2014)
Part VI. The Real Deal: Full-Length Practice LSATs
Top Five Ways to Duplicate the LSAT Environment
For best results, try to take the LSAT practice exams under simulated LSAT conditions by following these tips:
· Find a quiet place to work, where you won't be distracted or interrupted.
· Use the answer grid provided and mark your answers with a No. 2 pencil.
· Set your watch or alarm clock for 35-minute intervals.
· Do not go to the next section until the time allotted for the current section is up. If you finish early, check your work for that section only.
· Don't take a break during any one section. Give yourself exactly one 10-minute break between sections III and IV.
Make the most of your LSAT practice time by applying the techniques described in the free article at www.dummies.com/extras/lsat.
In this part…
· See how your stamina measures up by taking a full-length LSAT practice test (or two, or three).
· Score your test quickly with an answer key.
· Discover how to improve your performance by reading through an explanation of the answer for each practice test question.
· Simulate LSAT exam day by duplicating the testing environment as closely as possible.
Chapter 15. Some Rainy-Day “Fun”: LSAT Practice Exam 1
You're ready to take a crack at a full-blown practice LSAT exam. You're feeling good and ready to go (well, maybe not, but you're at least smart enough to know that this practice is good for you).
For best results, try to take this practice exam under simulated LSAT conditions.
1. Find a quiet place to work, where you won't be distracted or interrupted.
2. Use the answer grid provided and mark your answers with a No. 2 pencil.
3. Set your watch or alarm clock for 35-minute intervals.
4. Do not go to the next section until the time allotted for the current section is up.
5. If you finish early, check your work for that section only.
6. Don't take a break during any one section.
7. Give yourself exactly one 10-minute break between sections III and IV.
The answers and explanations to this test's questions are in Chapter 16, along with a sample scoring chart. Go through the explanations to all the questions, even the ones you answered correctly. The answers are a good review of the techniques we discuss throughout the book.
If you like to work the analytical reasoning and reading comprehension problems by picking your favorite set first, the best criterion for choosing a favorite is the number of questions — the problem set with the most questions has the most points attached to it. Assessing a problem's difficulty is nearly impossible before you start, and often the problems that look hard initially turn out to be easy. Maximize your investment of time — pick a problem with seven questions before you work one with only five.
Time: 35 minutes for 26 questions
Directions: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
Questions 1–7 refer to the following scenario.
Five members of the Sigma Delta fraternity — Biff, Chas, Deke, Marc, and Trip — participate in a college beach volleyball tournament. Each game in the tournament pits a team of two players from one fraternity against a team of two players from a rival fraternity. For every game, the fraternity supplies a pair of players. Each of the tournament participants from the Sigma Delta fraternity plays in at least one game. No two players play more than one game together. The following conditions apply to the Sigma Delta players during the tournament:
· If Biff plays with Marc in any game, then Biff cannot play with Chas in any game.
· Any player who plays on a team with Deke in any game must also play on a team with Marc in a game.
· Trip plays in exactly one game in the tournament.
· Deke never plays on a team with Marc.
1. Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the pairs of players that play in the tournament?
(A) Biff and Chas; Biff and Deke; Biff and Marc; Chas and Marc; Marc and Trip
(B) Biff and Chas; Biff and Deke; Biff and Trip; Deke and Marc
(C) Biff and Chas; Chas and Deke; Chas and Marc; Marc and Trip
(D) Biff and Marc; Biff and Trip; Chas and Deke; Chas and Marc; Marc and Trip
(E) Biff and Deke; Biff and Marc; Chas and Marc; Deke and Trip
2. At most, how many pairs of Sigma Delta players could play together in the tournament?
3. Which one of the following could be true?
(A) Biff and Chas play a game together, and neither Biff nor Chas plays with anyone else.
(B) Biff and Marc play a game together, and neither Biff nor Marc plays with anyone else.
(C) Biff and Trip play a game together, and neither Biff nor Trip plays with anyone else.
(D) Chas and Marc play a game together, and neither Chas nor Marc plays with anyone else.
(E) Marc and Trip play a game together, and neither Marc nor Trip plays with anyone else.
4. If exactly three players play games with Biff, then which one of the following could be an acceptable pairing of players?
(A) Biff and Chas
(B) Chas and Deke
(C) Chas and Trip
(D) Deke and Trip
(E) Marc and Trip
5. If each of four Sigma Delta players plays with the same player, then which of the following players must pair up for a game?
(A) Biff and Deke
(B) Biff and Trip
(C) Chas and Deke
(D) Deke and Trip
(E) Marc and Trip
6. Which one of the following pairs of players CANNOT play together?
(A) Biff and Deke
(B) Biff and Marc
(C) Biff and Trip
(D) Chas and Trip
(E) Deke and Trip
7. If Marc is the only player to play with Biff, then which one of the following could be true?
(A) Chas plays exactly one game.
(B) Marc plays exactly one game.
(C) Deke plays exactly two games.
(D) Marc plays exactly two games.
(E) Chas plays exactly four games.
Questions 8–12 refer to the following scenario.
A wrangler at a dude ranch in Colorado is taking a family of six on a trail ride through the mountains. She has selected six horses and assigned exactly one to each of the participants based on age, size, and disposition. The six horses include two feisty mares, two placid geldings, and two small Shetland ponies. The trails are narrow, so the horses must walk single file. In determining the order of horses, the wrangler must observe the following rules:
· Either the first or second horse must be a gelding.
· The last horse cannot be a mare.
· The third horse cannot be a pony.
· The wrangler can never put two horses of the same type immediately next to each other.
8. Which one of the following statements CANNOT be true?
(A) The first horse is a pony.
(B) The first horse is a mare.
(C) The second horse is a gelding.
(D) The third horse is a mare.
(E) The fifth horse is a pony.
9. If the third and fifth horses are the same type, then which one of the following statements must be true?
(A) The first horse is a pony.
(B) The second horse is a gelding.
(C) The fourth horse is a pony.
(D) The fifth horse is a mare.
(E) The last horse is a gelding.
10. If the third horse is a gelding, which one of the following must be true?
(A) The first horse is a gelding.
(B) The second horse is a pony.
(C) The fourth horse is a mare.
(D) The fifth horse is a pony.
(E) The last horse is a mare.
11. Which of the following pairs of horses must be of different types?
(A) the first and third horses
(B) the first and fourth horses
(C) the second and fourth horses
(D) the second and last horses
(E) the third and last horses
12. If the wrangler replaces one of the mares with a third pony, and all the other conditions remain the same, then which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the positions that must be occupied by ponies?
(C) second, fourth
(D) fourth, sixth
(E) second, fourth, sixth
Questions 13–19 refer to the following scenario.
A fantasy gaming team has seven members: Brunhild, Cayenne, Maev, Roxanne, Solomon, Yorick, and Zilla. They each participate in exactly one of three fantasy gaming tournaments. The three tournaments are held in Fargo, Little Rock, and Omaha. In deciding who attends which tournament, they must observe the following rules:
· Yorick cannot attend the tournament in Fargo.
· Cayenne must attend the tournament in Fargo.
· Brunhild and Roxanne must attend the same tournament.
· Solomon and Yorick cannot participate in the same tournament.
· Maev and Zilla cannot participate in the same tournament.
· Exactly half as many team members attend the tournament in Omaha as attend the tournament in Fargo.
13. If Brunhild and Yorick attend the same tournament, then which one of the following could be true?
(A) Brunhild attends the tournament in Fargo.
(B) Maev attends the tournament in Fargo.
(C) Roxanne attends the tournament in Omaha.
(D) Solomon attends the tournament in Little Rock.
(E) Yorick attends the tournament in Omaha.
14. Which one of the following could be true?
(A) Roxanne is the only team member who attends the tournament in Little Rock.
(B) Solomon is the only team member who attends the tournament in Omaha.
(C) Solomon is the only team member who attends the tournament in Fargo.
(D) Exactly two team members attend the tournament in Little Rock.
(E) Exactly three team members attend the tournament in Fargo.
15. If exactly one team member attends the tournament in Little Rock, then which one of the following must be true?
(A) Brunhild attends the tournament in Fargo.
(B) Maev attends the tournament in Omaha.
(C) Solomon attends the tournament in Fargo.
(D) Yorick attends the tournament in Omaha.
(E) Zilla attends the tournament in Omaha.
16. Each of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the team members who attend the tournament in Omaha EXCEPT:
(A) Brunhild and Roxanne
(B) Maev and Solomon
(C) Maev and Yorick
(D) Solomon and Zilla
(E) Yorick and Zilla
17. Which one of the following is a possible allocation of some team members to tournaments?
(A) Brunhild: the tournament in Omaha; Maev: the tournament in Fargo; Solomon: the tournament in Little Rock
(B) Brunhild and Maev: the tournament in Omaha; Yorick: the tournament in Little Rock
(C) Brunhild, Solomon, and Zilla: the tournament in Little Rock
(D) Maev: the tournament in Little Rock; Yorick and Zilla: the tournament in Fargo
(E) Roxanne, Solomon, and Zilla: the tournament in Fargo
18. Which one of the following must be true?
(A) Brunhild, Cayenne, and Maev do not attend the same tournament.
(B) Cayenne, Yorick, and Zilla do not attend the same tournament.
(C) Brunhild and Maev attend different tournaments.
(D) Cayenne and Maev attend different tournaments.
(E) Maev and Yorick attend different tournaments.
19. Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the team members who do NOT attend the tournament in Fargo?
(A) Solomon, Yorick
(B) Yorick, Zilla
(C) Brunhild, Roxanne, Yorick
(D) Maev, Solomon, Yorick
(E) Roxanne, Yorick, Zilla
Questions 20–26 refer to the following scenario.
A gourmet ice cream parlor offers a super-deluxe banana split intended to be shared by a group of people. The banana split comes in a long dish that contains five individual cups positioned side by side in a straight line. Each cup can hold up to two scoops of ice cream. A group of teenagers orders one of these banana splits. They request seven scoops of ice cream — three chocolate and four vanilla. Each scoop has one topping: Two scoops are topped with sprinkles, and five scoops are topped with nuts. The teenagers specify the following conditions:
· A cup containing a scoop of vanilla with nuts cannot be immediately next to a cup containing a scoop of chocolate with sprinkles.
· No cup can contain both vanilla and chocolate ice cream.
20. Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate arrangement of ice cream flavors and toppings in the five cups?
(A) 1: two scoops of vanilla with sprinkles; 2: nothing; 3: one scoop of chocolate with nuts; 4: one scoop of chocolate with nuts; 5: one scoop of chocolate with nuts, two scoops of vanilla with nuts
(B) 1: one scoop of vanilla with sprinkles, one scoop of vanilla with nuts; 2: two scoops of vanilla with nuts; 3: one scoop of chocolate with sprinkles; 4: one scoop of chocolate with nuts; one scoop of chocolate with nuts
(C) 1: one scoop of vanilla with nuts, one scoop of vanilla with sprinkles; 2: one scoop of vanilla with nuts, one scoop of vanilla with sprinkles; 3: one scoop of chocolate with sprinkles; 4: one scoop of chocolate with nuts; 5: one scoop of chocolate with nuts
(D) 1: nothing; 2: two scoops of vanilla with nuts; 3: two scoops of chocolate with nuts; 4: two scoops of vanilla with sprinkles; 5: one scoop of chocolate with nuts
(E) 1: two scoops of vanilla with nuts; 2: one scoop of vanilla with sprinkles; 3: one scoop of chocolate with nuts; 4: one scoop of chocolate with nuts, one scoop of chocolate with sprinkles; 5: one scoop of chocolate with nuts
21. Which one of the following CANNOT be false?
(A) At least one cup contains exactly one scoop of chocolate ice cream.
(B) At least one cup contains exactly one scoop of ice cream with sprinkles.
(C) At least one cup contains exactly one scoop of ice cream with nuts.
(D) At least one scoop of vanilla ice cream has sprinkles.
(E) At least one scoop of chocolate ice cream has sprinkles.
22. What is the maximum number of cups that could contain exactly one scoop of ice cream?
23. If the third cup has no ice cream in it, and no cup containing a scoop of vanilla is adjacent to another cup containing a scoop of vanilla, then which one of the following could be false?
(A) Exactly one cup contains exactly one scoop of ice cream.
(B) No scoop of chocolate is in a cup immediately next to a cup containing a scoop of vanilla.
(C) None of the scoops of chocolate have sprinkles on them.
(D) None of the cups contain exactly one scoop of vanilla.
(E) All the scoops of vanilla are in the second and fourth cups.
24. If two scoops of chocolate with sprinkles are in the fourth cup, and at least one scoop of vanilla with nuts is in the second cup, then all the following must be false EXCEPT
(A) A scoop of chocolate with nuts is in the first cup.
(B) A scoop of chocolate with nuts is in the second cup.
(C) A scoop of chocolate with nuts is in the fourth cup.
(D) A scoop of chocolate with nuts is in the fifth cup.
(E) Two scoops of ice cream are in the fifth cup.
25. If each of the scoops of chocolate ice cream is in its own cup, and all the scoops of vanilla have nuts on them, then which one of the cups CANNOT contain vanilla ice cream?
(A) the first cup
(B) the second cup
(C) the third cup
(D) the fourth cup
(E) the fifth cup
26. Each of the following could be a complete description of the contents of the first and second cups EXCEPT:
(A) 1: two scoops of chocolate with nuts; 2: one scoop of vanilla with nuts
(B) 1: one scoop of vanilla with sprinkles, one scoop of vanilla with nuts; 2: one scoop of vanilla with sprinkles
(C) 1: empty; 2: one scoop of chocolate with nuts
(D) 1: one scoop of chocolate with sprinkles; 2: one scoop of vanilla with sprinkles
(E) 1: one scoop of vanilla with sprinkles; 2: empty
Time: 35 minutes for 25 questions
Directions: Read the passage and choose the best answer. Some questions may have more than one answer that looks right. Select the one that answers the question most completely. Don't assume anything that isn't directly stated, and don't let your imagination run wild; all the information you need is in the arguments and the answer choices.
1. Tempest: I bought two urns from an auction at Christie's. Christie's advertised them as dating from the Louis XV period of the late 18th century. I now believe that they actually date from the late 19th century and are worth much less than I paid for them. Several antiques experts agree with me. Therefore, Christie's advertised them falsely and should refund my purchase price.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens Tempest's argument?
(A) The auction catalog described the urns as “A pair of Louis XV porphyry and gilt-bronze two-handled vases.”
(B) Dating antiques is an imprecise art, and often, several experts disagree about the date of origin of the same item.
(C) Scientists have performed tests on the bronze linings of the urns, but they have not produced conclusive results regarding the vases’ ages.
(D) Christie's states in its auction catalogs that all buyers should consult outside specialists before bidding on antiques, especially in the case of extremely valuable items.
(E) The experts who Tempest hired to date the urns are known as some of the best in their field.
2. The state should continue to use the death penalty to punish the most extreme criminals. The death penalty is the only way to provide closure for the families of victims. People who commit coldblooded, premeditated murders are incorrigible. Anyone whom a jury convicts of committing a truly heinous crime deserves to be executed by the state.
Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the argument?
(A) Surveys of the families of murder victims show that the surviving relatives overwhelmingly support the death penalty.
(B) Simply executing convicted criminals is far cheaper than maintaining them in maximum-security prison for life, with no chance of release or parole.
(C) Recent studies have shown that a large proportion of criminals sentenced to death are later shown to be innocent of their crimes.
(D) Modern methods of execution such as lethal injection are much less unpleasant to watch than earlier methods such as electrocution or hanging.
(E) Many states that had supported the death penalty are now moving in the other direction, and the number of executions has decreased dramatically in recent years.
3. The top-ranking, highest-paying law firms select their new associates exclusively from top-ten law schools. Therefore, if a student does not get into a top-ten law school, he or she should not bother attending law school at all.
The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument
(A) promises students that if they attend a top-ten law school, they are guaranteed a position at a top-ranking law firm
(B) suggests, without offering evidence, that the legal education provided by lower-ranking law schools is inadequate
(C) fails to criticize the biased recruiting practices of top-ranking law firms
(D) assumes that the only reason anyone would attend law school is to acquire a job at a top-ranking, high-paying law firm
(E) misrepresents the relationship between law school and future employment
4. Exterminator: In the summer, we implement a large-scale mosquito abatement program to protect the population from West Nile virus. In addition to spraying insecticide and larvicide to kill mosquitoes, we also collect dead birds and test them for the virus. We have not found the virus in any birds tested this year, so we expect that we will not see an outbreak of West Nile virus this summer.
The exterminator draws a logical conclusion if which one of the following is assumed?
(A) Mosquitoes transmit the virus to birds by biting them, which is the same way humans catch the virus, but birds are much more susceptible than humans to dying from West Nile virus.
(B) The massive spraying of insecticide and larvicide will kill enough mosquitoes that they will not be able to transmit the virus effectively.
(C) Birds are an indicator species of West Nile virus; the virus always appears in birds before humans start catching the disease.
(D) It is possible to have an outbreak of West Nile virus among humans, even if no birds die of the virus, though that would be an unusual scenario.
(E) The insecticide and larvicide used to kill the adult and larval mosquitoes do not have a deleterious effect on the health of birds that eat mosquitoes.
5. Editorialist: Conservative legislators and religious groups want to ban all research involving undifferentiated stem cells, fearing that such research would be akin to abortion because it would destroy an embryo's chances at life. They could not be more wrong; stem cells are not embryos and can never develop into human beings. Stem cell research could lead to all sorts of promising treatments for diseases such as Alzheimer's, diabetes, and some kinds of cancer.
Which one of the following is most strongly supported by this information?
(A) The editorialist believes that stem cell research offers many powerful benefits and that the arguments of its detractors are invalid because they misunderstand the nature of stem cells.
(B) The editorialist believes that, because stem cells sometimes come from embryos, using them in research inevitably results in the destruction of embryos that could become people.
(C) The editorialist believes that religious groups should not be allowed to influence legislators on scientific matters because they refuse to accept scientific fact when it contradicts their religious beliefs.
(D) The editorialist believes that the legislature should pass a law allowing stem cell research but also pass another law banning the use of stem cells acquired from aborted embryos.
(E) The editorialist believes that stem cell research offers many potential benefits but that it should be banned because those benefits are outweighed by costs.
6. Scientists have concluded that a pickled human heart long believed to be the heart of King Louis XVII of France is indeed his heart, and not that of a commoner substituted for the royal boy. Louis XVII's parents, Marie Antoinette and Louis XVI, fell to the guillotine during the French Revolution, and Louis XVII was thrown into prison, where he died at the age of 10. His heart was removed and preserved. Many people believed, however, that the young king had been spirited away and the boy who died in prison was an impostor. Scientific evidence now shows that the child who died in prison was indeed Louis XVII.
Which one of the following, if true, most strongly supports the scientists’ conclusion?
(A) At that time in France, removing and preserving the hearts of royal corpses was a traditional service that was never applied to the bodies of commoners.
(B) Scientists examining the heart have concluded that it must have belonged to a male between the ages of 8 and 12.
(C) DNA samples taken from the heart in question and from hair cut from Marie Antoinette's head when she was a child indicate that the heart and hair sample came from people who were closely related.
(D) The doctor who removed Louis XVII's heart preserved it in a jar of alcohol, which was so effective as a preservative that the heart's valves and muscles are still in good condition and can be easily examined by scientists.
(E) Scientists examining the heart have determined that it came from a child who suffered great physical privation in the years just prior to his death; in particular, its undeveloped muscles suggest that the heart's owner did not engage in much physical activity for several years.
7. Emilio: Every child should be encouraged to play a single team sport at a high level, perhaps on a select traveling team that plays year-round. If a child does not play on an elite team at a young age, he will not have a chance to play on his high school varsity team and will thus forgo any opportunity to win college scholarships for athletics.
Julienne: Parents should encourage their children to play a wide variety of sports. Sports teach children teamwork and leadership and encourage them to develop physically. Most of all, sports should be fun. Children who specialize in one sport too early miss out on the chance to develop a wide range of skills, are more prone to injuries, and usually don't enjoy themselves as much as those who play a variety of sports. Also, so few athletic scholarships are available that there is very little point in counting on one.
Emilio and Julienne disagree about whether
(A) sports teach children teamwork and leadership
(B) children who play a single sport on an elite team enjoy themselves
(C) parents should encourage their children to participate in organized sports
(D) early specialization in a single sport is beneficial to children
(E) children below high school age should be participating in organized sports
8. To preserve the flavor of food for the longest period of time, a home freezer should maintain a temperature of no greater than 0 degrees. Even food that is kept frozen at the proper temperature lasts no more than a year. For every 5 degrees of temperature above zero, the life of food is cut in half. Most home freezers maintain a temperature of about 10 degrees.
If these statements are true, which one of the following must also be true based on them?
(A) Most home freezers can store food for no more than three months.
(B) Most homeowners do not know the temperature of their freezers.
(C) Frozen foods can still be safe to eat, even when they have lost their optimum flavor.
(D) Commercial freezers stay colder than home freezers.
(E) Most food in home freezers has been kept past the point at which its best flavor begins to deteriorate.
9. Ichthyologist: I have discovered a new kind of mollusk that lives deep in the ocean. All animals that live in the deep sea are predators that eat other animals. Therefore, this new mollusk must be a predator.
Which one of the following exhibits a pattern of reasoning most similar to that exhibited by the ichthyologist?
(A) A yoga enthusiast discovers a new yoga studio. All yoga studios employ experienced and highly trained instructors. Therefore, the yoga enthusiast will be able to find a good instructor.
(B) A coach finds a talented new basketball player in Croatia. Most Croatian basketball players are tall and hardworking. Therefore, this new basketball player is tall and hardworking.
(C) A gardener discovers a new variety of tomato in his garden. All tomatoes are members of the same family as potatoes and eggplants, the nightshade family. Therefore, this tomato must be a member of the nightshade family.
(D) A jeweler finds a perfect sapphire. All sapphires are very hard and durable. Therefore, this sapphire must be hard and durable.
(E) A botanist finds a new kind of cactus in the driest part of the desert. All plants that live in the dry desert are extremely efficient at collecting and retaining water. Therefore, this new cactus must be extremely efficient at collecting and retaining water.
10. Counselor: People should always pick their battles. By bringing up only the issues that truly matter to them and ignoring the ones that don't, they maximize chances of getting what they want and avoid antagonizing friends and relatives unnecessarily.
Which one of the following provides the best illustration of the counselor's proposition?
(A) A brother and sister have to share a car. The brother never fills the tank with gasoline, always driving it until it is nearly empty and then waiting for his sister to fill it up. She yells at him every time she has to visit a gas station.
(B) A wife wants her husband to wash the dishes, take out the garbage, and make the bed in the morning, but she knows he will not do all three. She most dislikes taking out the garbage herself, so she makes a point of asking him to do that many times and ignores the dishes and bed.
(C) A test-prep teacher teaching an LSAT course wants to improve her students’ scores in both logical reasoning and analytical reasoning, but she does not have time to do a thorough job on both, so she spends half her time on logical reasoning and half on analytical reasoning.
(D) A bride's mother wants her to have a big wedding in a church followed by a large reception, but the bride wants a small, less-formal wedding with just a few guests. They cannot agree, so the bride and groom decide to elope instead.
(E) A father wants his son to win an athletic scholarship and insists that his son spend hours every afternoon working out and practicing sports. Despite the son's strenuous efforts, he fails to win an athletic scholarship. Because he is a good student, though, he does win an academic scholarship.
11. People who live in poverty often have little money to spend on food, and as a result are often afflicted with malnutrition. Ironically, these same people have very high rates of obesity.
Which one of the following best resolves this apparent paradox?
(A) Obesity is becoming a serious problem all over the world and at all levels of income.
(B) People who live in poverty do not understand the basic rules of nutrition.
(C) American citizens have gotten out of the habit of cooking family meals, and as a result, fewer and fewer people know how to prepare healthy foods such as vegetables.
(D) The cheap foods that make up the majority of the diets of poor people are full of calories but devoid of essential nutrients.
(E) Recent statistics show that processed foods and fast food make up almost half the diet of a large number of people in the United States.
12. Most players of video games are male. Therefore, video game manufacturers should not bother making any games aimed at girls or women.
Which one of the following employs a flawed argumentative strategy that is most closely parallel to this flawed argumentative strategy?
(A) Most avid cyclists are male. Therefore, bicycle manufacturers should make most of their bike frames to fit men.
(B) Most Americans have cellular telephones. Therefore, most Americans should not bother to maintain normal land-based telephones.
(C) Most people use Windows computers. Therefore, software producers should not bother to make any software for Macintosh computers.
(D) Most lawyers need glasses or contact lenses. Therefore, optometrists should aim some of their advertising at the legal profession.
(E) Most Labrador retrievers are easy to train. Therefore, a person who wants an obedient dog should consider getting a Labrador retriever.
13. The legislature is considering a law banning the use of cellphones by people who are driving a moving car. Drivers talking on cellphones are distracted by their phone conversations and can't give their full attention to driving their vehicles. Banning the use of cellphones by drivers will make the roads safer.
The argument depends on assuming which one of the following?
(A) A study by a sociologist has shown that the use of cellphones is occasionally a contributing factor in traffic accidents.
(B) The proper role of the legislature is to enact laws that protect the safety of drivers and passengers in automobiles.
(C) Drivers who hold their cellphones in their hands are more distracted than drivers who use a hands-free headset or speakerphone while driving.
(D) Because drivers talking on cellphones are distracted, they are more prone to get into accidents.
(E) Many drivers engage in behavior that distracts them from their driving, such as eating, adjusting the radio, reading maps, and talking on cellphones.
14. Partner: Attorney A and Attorney B each wrote a brief arguing the same side of a case. Attorney A spent 8 hours writing his brief. Attorney B spent 12 hours writing her brief. Therefore, Attorney B's brief is better than Attorney A's brief.
The reasoning in the partner's argument is flawed because the argument
(A) equates time spent on a job with quality, without examining the products to verify the quality
(B) criticizes Attorney B for taking too long to write her brief
(C) fails to explain why the partner believes Attorney B's brief is better than Attorney A's brief
(D) takes for granted that tracking time spent on work is the best way to ensure quality work
(E) fails to identify the topic of the brief
15. High school student: My teacher defines insects as animals with six legs, a three-part body, an outer skeleton, and in most cases, wings. Ants are referred to as insects, but most species of ants don't have wings. Therefore, if my teacher is correct, ants can't be insects.
A reasoning flaw in the high school student's argument is that the argument
(A) ignores the possibility that some ants have wings
(B) relies on a single unverified source for its definition of insects
(C) fails to offer alternative categories in which to place ants
(D) exaggerates the importance of wings to ants
(E) assumes incorrectly that a characteristic found in the majority of a group must also be found in the majority of each subgroup within that group
16. This store is having a sale in which all its merchandise is 25 percent off. I plan to buy many things because the more I spend, the more I will save.
This argument is vulnerable to criticism on which of the following grounds?
(A) It assumes erroneously that the same discount of 25 percent will apply to all the merchandise in the store.
(B) It confuses percentage of discount with actual dollar reductions.
(C) It fails to realize that spending money on discounted items is still spending money and will result in no savings at all.
(D) It presupposes that the store has put its merchandise on sale in an effort to attract more customers.
(E) It neglects to consider that merchandise might be put on sale because it is of poor quality, defective, or unpopular.
17. Christina: The best way for employers to reduce their healthcare costs is to implement consumer-driven health insurance plans. These plans have high deductibles — upfront charges that encourage employees to think twice before seeing a doctor for frivolous reasons. Employers pay lower premiums for these plans and can help their employees pay for necessary care by contributing to healthcare savings accounts along with their employees.
Guthrie: But there are many complex causes for the rise in healthcare costs, such as inefficient record-keeping and the price of brand-name drugs. Higher financial hurdles to see a doctor will only make patients reluctant to seek care for minor problems, and that neglect could result in minor problems turning into major health catastrophes that will be very expensive for everyone.
Based on this dialogue, Christina and Guthrie are committed to disagreeing about the truth of which one of the following statements?
(A) An effective way for employers to reduce their healthcare costs is to discourage the use of brand-name drugs.
(B) The high deductibles of consumer-driven health insurance plans will lead to higher healthcare costs.
(C) Health insurance companies make it very difficult for smaller employers to buy affordable coverage for themselves and their employees.
(D) High deductibles are effective at deterring people from seeking medical attention for all but the most serious concerns.
(E) Healthcare savings accounts offer employees a way to save pretax income for anticipated medical expenses.
18. Context is everything. For example, on an Internet perfume discussion board, one participant posted the message, “Azkaban arrives today!” referring to an extremely popular film about a boy wizard that was opening that day. Another participant responded, “Where can you buy it?” evidently assuming that “Azkaban” must refer to a new perfume. She quickly realized her mistake, but because her mind was on perfumes, she couldn't immediately place the movie.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main conclusion of this argument?
(A) Internet discussion boards are especially prone to context-based errors.
(B) Even well-known and widely available information, provided in an unexpected context, can be misleading.
(C) To avoid misunderstanding, people should always introduce topics precisely.
(D) Participants on perfume discussion boards do not know much about popular movies.
(E) The names of perfumes are so fanciful that confusing them is easy.
19. Divemaster: Some scuba divers fill their tanks with nitrox instead of air. Nitrox is a combination of nitrogen and oxygen that contains more than the usual percentage of oxygen contained in air. Nitrox aficionados claim that the additional oxygen makes diving safer; they can stay down longer, decompress faster, dive again after a shorter surface interval, and feel less fatigued after extended diving than if they were breathing plain air. On the other hand, divers using nitrox face dangers and limitations, particularly the risk of convulsions and death, at greater depths that are safe for divers using air.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent discrepancy in the divemaster's statements?
(A) The higher concentration of oxygen in nitrox becomes toxic when it is compressed at increasing depths.
(B) Divers who use nitrox are likely to stay underwater too long, lulled into a false sense of security by their breathing gas.
(C) Divers who use air pay more attention to training and safety procedures and experience fewer fatal accidents because of improper procedures than divers who use nitrox.
(D) All divers face the rare risk of receiving a tank with contaminated air, which occurs when bacteria grow inside a compressor, occasionally resulting in diving fatalities.
(E) Divers who use nitrox are more likely to dive regularly, take frequent training courses, and buy more technologically advanced equipment than divers who use air.
20. Many Americans do not take all the vacation time to which they are entitled to by their jobs. There are several reasons for this: They feel that they are indispensable at work, they fear the resentment of co-workers, or they dread discovering that their workplaces can actually function perfectly well without them. This is a mistake; vacation time gives workers a chance to rest, recover, and gain perspective that in turn can lead to more creativity and better performance at work.
The claim that many Americans do not take all the vacation time to which they are entitled plays which one of the following roles in the argument?
(A) It is a recommendation of a policy that the American workplace should implement.
(B) It is evidence of the author's claim that vacation time gives workers a chance to rest.
(C) It is the conclusion of the argument.
(D) It is a statement of a principle that the author wishes all people would observe.
(E) It is a statement of fact about which the author goes on to make an opinion.
21. A large Southern state university has changed its teaching practices. Formerly, instructors without PhDs taught most introductory courses; now professors with PhDs will teach all introductory classes. That means the average class size will increase from 44 students per class to 600 per class, but overall the students’ learning experience should improve.
Which one of the following is an assumption required by this argument?
(A) Requiring professors with PhDs to teach all introductory classes will mean that the university must hire more faculty with doctorates.
(B) Students tend to participate in smaller classes more than they do in large lectures, even when the lectures are supplemented by weekly discussion sections.
(C) Major private universities already have implemented a format in which professors with PhDs teach all introductory classes as large lectures.
(D) A class taught by a PhD, even in a lecture format with hundreds of students, is a better learning environment than a smaller class taught by an instructor without a PhD.
(E) Services that rank colleges and universities usually consider the percentage of classes taught by PhDs when computing rank.
22. Griselda: The United States should remember that it is part of a global community and that its actions affect other nations. The United States must avoid alienating the citizens of foreign countries. Ultimately, that is the best way to assure national security.
Theodore: The good opinion of foreign countries is largely irrelevant to U.S. national security concerns. The United States should always act in its own best interest, regardless of what other nations think. If that means sending troops off to war without the approval of the rest of the world, then so be it.
Which one of the following is most strongly supported by this conversation?
(A) Griselda agrees with Theodore that sometimes the United States is justified in sending troops abroad despite the disapproval of other nations, but she believes that in most circumstances, an international consensus is desirable.
(B) Theodore believes that the proper response to threats from abroad is a show of military strength.
(C) Theodore and Griselda both believe that the opinion of the international community is important but disagree about the proper response to actions that threaten U.S. national security.
(D) Griselda believes that the United States should follow the dictates of the United Nations on all matters of national security and foreign intervention, particularly when it comes to sending troops to other countries.
(E) Griselda and Theodore disagree about whether the United States should respect the opinions of other nations when making decisions that affect national security.
23. Obstetrician: Children born to mothers who drink heavily during pregnancy often have severe birth defects and mental retardation caused by prenatal exposure to alcohol. Pregnant women should never consume alcohol because it causes their children to be born with these serious problems.
The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the obstetrician
(A) assumes that consuming any amount of alcohol during pregnancy will cause birth defects and mental retardation
(B) suggests that pregnant women should be prevented from drinking during pregnancy
(C) presumes that the state's interest in the health of newborns is greater than the rights of pregnant women to behave as they choose
(D) fails to provide evidence from reliable medical journals proving the link between heavy drinking and birth defects
(E) treats a condition sufficient to cause birth defects and mental retardation as if it were necessary to cause those problems
24. An ounce of prevention is worth a pound of cure; it is always cheaper to head off problems before they start than to fix them after they have occurred.
Which one of the following most closely conforms to this principle?
(A) A homeowner spent hours preparing the soil for his lawn and garden, and as a result of his preparation, his grass was green and lush and his flowers bloomed with abandon.
(B) A state school board insisted that all students in public schools show evidence of vaccination against measles before being allowed to attend classes.
(C) A pre-law student spent several weeks studying for the LSAT, and as a result, she received an excellent score that, combined with the grades she had earned from years of diligent study, earned her admission to a top law school.
(D) A university that licensed a low-cost online workshop on proper citation techniques for its incoming students found itself needing to commit significantly fewer valuable staff hours to handle incidents of unintentional plagiarism.
(E) A woman who spent several months dieting and exercising and finally achieved her ideal body weight continued to watch what she ate and to exercise regularly to avoid gaining weight again.
25. Psychologist: Patients who feel they have a good relationship with their doctors generally show more improvement in their health than those who feel that their doctors ignore their concerns. Patients who like their doctors show improved emotional well-being, are less anxious about their symptoms, and are more likely to follow doctors’ prescribed regimens.
Which one of the following, if true, would provide the most support for the psychologist's argument?
(A) Patients are more likely to sue a doctor for malpractice if they believe that the doctor ignored them or failed to listen while they explained their symptoms.
(B) When a patient begins to describe symptoms to a doctor, the average physician interrupts him after only 18 seconds of speech.
(C) A large number of studies have confirmed that the more anxious a patient is, the more protracted his or her recovery from a medical condition is.
(D) Recently, medical schools and health insurers have taken measures to improve doctor-patient communication.
(E) Doctors who work in stressful environments are much less likely to take the time to listen to patients than doctors in more relaxed settings.
Time: 35 minutes for 25 questions
Directions: Read each passage and answer the questions that follow it. Some questions may have more than one answer that looks right. In that case, pick the one that answers the question most completely and correctly. Don't assume anything that isn't stated in the passage or the questions. All the information you need to answer the questions is contained in the passage, questions, and answer choices.
Questions 1–7 refer to the following passage.
1. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main idea of this passage?
(A) The UCI banned recumbent bicycles from competitions because it feared that allowing recumbents would turn bicycle racing into a design competition rather than a test of training, endurance, and skill.
(B) Recumbent bicycles have become more popular recently after years of neglect, and this surge in popularity has brought with it a proliferation of recumbent bicycle designs, each of which offers benefits to speed or comfort.
(C) Recumbent bicycles have a much more aerodynamic profile than upright bicycles, especially when used with a fairing, which explains why recumbent bicycles are faster than upright diamond-frame bicycles with identical riders under identical conditions.
(D) Recumbent bicycles, which were banned from competition in the 1930s and thus neglected for much of the 20th century, offer many advantages over upright bicycles and come in many designs.
(E) The permanent aerodynamic tuck of a recumbent rider allows recumbent bicycles to move faster than upright bicycles under equivalent conditions, which accounts for recumbents’ breaking several world speed records.
2. According to the passage, why are recumbent bicycles faster than upright bicycles?
(A) The seating position places the cyclist in a permanent aerodynamic tuck, with arms and legs contained within the rider's torso profile, thereby creating less wind resistance than an upright rider faces.
(B) Most recumbent bicycles are made from high-tech, super-light materials such as carbon fiber and titanium, which makes them lighter and stronger than upright diamond-frame bicycles.
(C) Recumbents are designed to maximize aerodynamic efficiency and comfort through the use of ergonomic seating and fairings, which reduce wind resistance.
(D) Bicycle manufacturers have been experimenting with recumbent frames since they were first invented in the mid-1800s, which has resulted in greater refinement of construction techniques than are available for upright bicycles.
(E) Recumbents can have two different steering configurations, which makes them faster than upright bicycles, which have only one basic steering structure.
3. According to the passage, why did the Union Cycliste Internationale ban recumbents from competition?
(A) A second-rate cyclist won a race on a recumbent, and the other competitors petitioned the cycling organization to outlaw recumbents, despite the obvious aerodynamic advantage offered by recumbent bicycles.
(B) After several cyclists set records on upright bicycles, the organization decided that upright bikes were far superior to recumbents and should therefore be the only vehicles allowed in bicycle racing.
(C) Bicycle manufacturers petitioned the UCI to standardize the bicycle types that were allowed in racing to achieve a monopoly on the racing bike market.
(D) In 1934, a second-rate cyclist on a recumbent attracted too much press attention due to his unusual and eye-catching bicycle, and the organization decided to ban recumbents to focus attention back on the more talented cyclists.
(E) After a second-rate cyclist won a race and broke several records on a recumbent, the UCI decided that recumbents offered too much mechanical advantage and that, in order for races to reflect actual ability, all riders should use the same kind of bicycle.
4. Which one of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as an advantage of recumbent bicycles over upright bicycles?
(A) Recumbent bicycles are more comfortable than upright bicycles, which allows cyclists to ride them for longer periods than they would on upright bicycles.
(B) Recumbent bicycles are lighter than upright bicycles, which gives them an advantage at hill climbing.
(C) Recumbent bicycles minimize the frontal profile of the cyclist, improving aerodynamics.
(D) Recumbent bicycles can be 15 percent faster than upright bicycles on the same terrain.
(E) Recumbent cyclists report many fewer overuse injuries than upright cyclists.
5. What is the primary purpose of the last paragraph?
(A) to argue that, contrary to what they may expect, cyclists can climb hills well on recumbent bicycles, and to suggest ways to improve climbing performance
(B) to prove that recumbents are as fast on hills as upright bicycles because a cyclist with a high power-to-weight ratio on a recumbent can climb hills just as well as she can on an upright bicycle
(C) to describe the ideal cadence a recumbent cyclist should use on a grade of up to 12 percent
(D) to dispute the contention that recumbent bicycles lose their aerodynamic advantage when climbing hills by offering anecdotal evidence of recumbent cyclists who are strong climbers
(E) to recommend that recumbent cyclists interested in improving their hill-climbing speed lift weights to increase their strength and minimize the weight of their bikes
6. According to the passage, which one of the following recumbent bicycles would be fastest ridden by the same rider under the same riding conditions?
(A) a short wheelbase bike with above-seat steering
(B) a short wheelbase bike with below-seat steering
(C) a short wheelbase bike with above-seat steering and a fairing
(D) a long wheelbase bike with below-seat steering and a fairing
(E) a long wheelbase bike with above-seat steering
7. The author would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements?
(A) A rider on a recumbent bicycle with above-seat steering should be able to climb faster than a rider on an upright bicycle of the same weight.
(B) In the near future, more cyclists will be riding recumbents than upright bicycles as more people discover the aerodynamic and comfort advantages of recumbent bicycles.
(C) A cyclist who wants to make his recumbent bicycle faster by reducing its weight should consider installing a fairing on it.
(D) An aerodynamic tuck on an upright bicycle offers as much aerodynamic advantage and comfort as the ordinary riding position on a recumbent bicycle.
(E) A cyclist who wants to maximize speed and comfort and is not interested in racing should choose a recumbent over an upright bicycle.
Questions 8–13 refer to the following two passages. The first is adapted from Posttraumatic Stress Disorder: Issues and Controversies, edited by Gerald M. Rosen (Wiley). The second is adapted from Post-traumatic Stress Disorder, edited by Dan J. Stein, Matthew J. Friedman, and Carlos Blanco (Wiley).
8. The author of Passage A and the author of Passage B are most likely to agree with which of the following statements regarding PTSD?
(A) Sufferers of PTSD are preoccupied with concerns about personal safety.
(B) It can be argued that the very ratification of PTSD relies more on politics than medical evidence.
(C) The diagnosis of PTSD is highly controversial.
(D) The concept of trauma is limited to catastrophic events that most won't experience in a lifetime.
(E) Sufferers of PTSD want to remember as much as they possibly can about dangerous encounters and situations so that they can avoid similar threats in the future.
9. Which of the following titles would most appropriately fit both passages?
(A) PTSD: A Brief History of a Modern Controversy
(B) Falsehoods in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders
(C) The Alarming Growth of PTSD in America
(D) PTSD: Fact or Fiction?
(E) PTSD: A Case Study
10. Which of the following arguments is NOT made by the author of either passage?
(A) By today's definition of a traumatic event, most Americans have been exposed to one.
(B) PTSD sufferers are more likely than an average citizen to feel that they are in danger.
(C) Clinical practice has been heavily influenced by the presumed causal relationship between a traumatic stressor and cases of PTSD, acute stress disorder, and adjustment disorders.
(D) The decision to include PTSD in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual was encouraged by advocacy groups working on behalf of Vietnam veterans working with antiwar psychiatrists.
(E) Sufferers of PTSD experience a lack of interest in day-to-day activities they used to find enjoyable.
11. Which of the following best characterizes suggestions made by the author of Passage A and the author of Passage B?
(A) The author of Passage A suggests that PTSD may be an invalid diagnosis, while the author of Passage B indicates that PTSD is a valid disorder with recognizable symptoms.
(B) The author of Passage A suggests ways in which the symptoms of PTSD may be indicators of other disorders, while the author of Passage B suggests that no other disorders share symptoms that are similar to PTSD.
(C) Both authors suggest that PTSD should be included in the current Diagnostic and Statistical Manual as a valid disorder.
(D) The author of Passage B indicates that questions regarding the validity of PTSD as a diagnosis are valid, while the author of Passage A suggests that PTSD is more a political or social phenomenon than a diagnosis.
(E) The author of Passage B suggests that more should be done to help those with PTSD, while the author of Passage A implies that sufferers of PTSD are being treated thoroughly.
12. Which of the following is the most accurate presentation of the primary purpose of Passage B?
(A) to explain how the symptoms of PTSD sufferers differ from the symptoms experienced by other survivors of traumatic events
(B) to suggest that PTSD symptoms may be exhibited by a majority of the population
(C) to expose the complications of traumatic stress disorders, such as PTSD, ASD, and AD, and to show how they affect the way their sufferers react to their environments
(D) to list and define the causes of PTSD
(E) to categorize the primary symptom of PTSD as a problem with the manner in which its sufferers respond to their environment
13. The author of Passage A mentions that PTSD “was more of a political or social construct” (Lines 19–20) to convey that
(A) antiwar psychiatrists made up the disorder to ensure that Vietnam veterans would get medical care for their exposure to traumatic events
(B) PTSD should be considered a medical disease rather than a disorder characterized by a single symptom such as a phobia or depression
(C) the controversy over whether PTSD is a medical diagnosis is complicated by the motivations of the movement behind PTSD
(D) cobbling together several symptoms and calling them PTSD does an injustice to those suffering from medical diseases resulting from natural events rather than political and social events, such as war
(E) discovering the causal relationship between a traumatic event and PTSD requires a complex consideration of both natural medical stressors and political and social ones
Questions 14–18 refer to the following passage.
14. Which one of the following most accurately states the central idea of this passage?
(A) Power and authority are the same thing but are spoken of differently depending on whether the person exercising power is a political leader.
(B) Power is a kind of authority that comes from persuasive speech and the threat of coercive force.
(C) Authority is a kind of power that does not explicitly depend on persuasion or coercion for its effect.
(D) Alexander was unique among ancient kings in exercising power and authority, but his general, Antipater, was also powerful.
(E) Alexander exercised power among the Greeks but relied on authority to govern Macedonians, Persians, and Egyptians.
15. The primary function of the second paragraph of the passage is to
(A) discuss the use of authority by Alexander the Great
(B) explore aspects of the concept of authority and its uneasy association with coercive and discursive power
(C) imply that without coercive power, there is no authority
(D) criticize scholars who have suggested different definitions of authority
(E) suggest that a speaker's authority falters if listeners question it
16. What does the author mean by the word “occulted” in Line 46?
17. According to the passage, what is the difference between power and authority?
(A) Authority is a generic term for creating an effect through persuasion, while power involves coercive force.
(B) Power is a generic term for the ability to make someone do something; authority is a particular form of power, the ability to command without explicit persuasion or coercion.
(C) Authority is exercised by virtue of political office, while power requires military command.
(D) Power exists in the eyes of the governed, while authority resides in the one employing it.
(E) Power is a generic term for the ability to make someone do something; authority is a particular form of power, the ability to command by skillfully applying persuasion and coercion as necessary.
18. According to the passage, what happens when a listener questions a speaker's authority?
(A) The speaker's authority becomes weaker, whereupon he can resort to persuasion or force, or reassert his authority by invoking his privileged position.
(B) The speaker's power falters, but he retains authority as long as the conversation continues.
(C) The listener and speaker change roles, with the listener becoming the one with access to authority.
(D) The speaker necessarily has to rely on coercion to assert authority.
(E) Both power and authority vanish from the relationship, which becomes one of mutual negotiation.
Questions 19–25 refer to the following passage.
19. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of this passage?
(A) Before the Panama Canal was built, a Navy ship took more than two months to move from California to the Atlantic; after the canal was opened, the same trip took about one month.
(B) During World War I, the U.S. Navy quickly learned to exploit its new passage through the Isthmus of Panama, which made it easy to transport troops from the West Coast and Hawaii to the European theater of war.
(C) The Spanish-American War was the impetus that persuaded the Roosevelt administration to construct the Panama Canal, intended to be a marine shortcut between the Atlantic and Pacific oceans.
(D) The Panama Canal is important to the military, but its real significance is economic, especially for nations in South America.
(E) The Panama Canal, built as a result of military strategists worried about transporting Navy ships from one ocean to another, not only expedited military transport but also made moving cargo between the oceans easier, opening a wealth of economic opportunities.
20. According to the passage, what was the logistical problem that inspired the construction of the Panama Canal?
(A) The U.S. Navy could not realistically build enough ships to man fleets in both the Atlantic and the Pacific oceans.
(B) U.S. merchants on the East Coast couldn't profitably sell their goods to markets on the Pacific because shipping them there was too expensive and time-consuming.
(C) Spain launched an attack on U.S. forces in Cuba by destroying a U.S. ship in the Havana harbor, and the U.S. Navy did not know whether the USS Oregon would reach Cuba in time to fight.
(D) Without the canal, the only way to transport boats from the Atlantic to the Pacific was to sail them around the entire continent of South America, which took more than two months.
(E) After the Spanish destroyed the USS Maine in 1897, the U.S. Navy had no major ship in the Atlantic to offer a counterattack to the massive Spanish presence near Cuba.
21. What does the author mean by the phrase “effectively divided the U.S. Naval forces into two fleets” in Lines 22 and 23?
(A) The commanders of the U.S. Navy wanted to keep half their ships in the Pacific and half in the Atlantic to have fleets in both oceans all the time.
(B) The U.S. Navy was unable to use all its ships in the same conflicts because it took far too long to sail ships from the Atlantic to the Pacific and vice versa.
(C) Ships based in the Pacific could not sail around South America in time to play effective roles in conflicts in the Atlantic.
(D) The U.S. Navy had intended the USS Maine to be the flagship of its Atlantic fleet, and when it was destroyed in Cuba in 1897, the Navy had great difficulty moving its Pacific battleship, the USS Oregon, into the Atlantic.
(E) The U.S. Navy built all its battleships, such as the USS Oregon, in California, on the assumption that the Pacific theater would have more need of battleships than the Atlantic theater.
22. What does the author imply may have happened if the USS Oregon had not arrived in Cuba in time?
(A) The Panama Canal may not have been built.
(B) American ships other than the USS Maine could have been destroyed.
(C) Spain could have won the fight for Cuba.
(D) San Francisco may have been left without a ship to defend it.
(E) The U.S. Navy may not have had a chance to test out its new battleship.
23. The passage mentions each one of the following functions of the Panama Canal EXCEPT:
(A) It has transformed Panama into a major player in world trade.
(B) Fourteen percent of U.S. seaborne trade passes through the canal.
(C) Japan imports most of its grain and exports most of its automobiles through the canal.
(D) The U.S. Navy uses it to transport ships from the Atlantic to the Pacific and vice versa.
(E) It facilitates a large proportion of the trade of several South American nations.
24. The primary purpose of the second paragraph is to
(A) analyze the thinking of military strategists who worried about what would have happened had the USS Oregon not reached Cuba in time
(B) explain the role of the USS Oregon in the war with Spain over Cuba and the effects of its performance on the thinking of military strategists
(C) weigh the costs and benefits of travel through the Panama Canal and compare them to those of sailing around South America
(D) discuss various possible alternatives to the construction of the Panama Canal that the U.S. military strategists considered at the time, such as sailing north of North America
(E) describe the drawbacks of sending ships around South America and the reasoning that led to the decision to build the Panama Canal
25. Which one of the following is most likely the author's overall purpose in the passage?
(A) to argue that the U.S. Navy was severely hampered by the geographical necessity of sailing around South America before the building of the Panama Canal, and that the United States was therefore justified in digging a canal through a foreign nation
(B) to describe the history behind the construction of the Panama Canal and the canal's importance to world trade and the U.S. military
(C) to present the history of the founding and creation of the Panama Canal as an illustration of American exercise of imperial power in the early 20th century
(D) to describe the construction of the Panama Canal and the Panama Canal's subsequent role as a facility used by both military and commercial shipping concerns
(E) to explain why the explosion of the USS Maine in 1897 was the precipitating event in the design and construction of the Panama Canal
Time: 35 minutes for 25 questions
Directions: Read the passage and choose the best answer. Some questions may have more than one answer that looks right. Select the one that answers the question most completely. Don't assume anything that isn't directly stated, and don't let your imagination run wild; all the information you need is in the arguments and the answer choices.
1. Curmudgeon: Why should I have to pay taxes for public schools? I do not have children who can attend those schools, so I should not have to pay for something that can never benefit me.
Which one of the following is an assumption required by the curmudgeon's argument?
(A) In a democracy, it is essential that all citizens have at least a basic education to enable them to choose candidates and vote intelligently.
(B) People who do not have children attending public schools cannot benefit in any way from the existence of public schools.
(C) People who do have children in public schools are reaping an undeserved benefit from the tax dollars of other citizens.
(D) Encouraging people to have children is in the interest of the state because these children form the next generation of citizens.
(E) Paying for 12 years of education for a child is much cheaper than paying for 12 years of incarceration for a convicted criminal.
2. Magazine article: Scientists have found that people fall asleep faster when they go to bed with warm feet that cool off as they lie still — for instance, warming one's feet with socks before going to bed and then removing them when one lies down to sleep to let the feet cool off again. That means that anyone with insomnia should try wearing socks to bed.
The reasoning in the magazine article's argument is flawed because the argument
(A) concludes without justification that the technique of warming feet and then letting them cool is a valid approach to preventing sleeplessness
(B) implies that the same advice will work for all sufferers of insomnia, regardless of the cause
(C) assumes that the research on how foot temperature affects sleep is accurate because it came from scientists, without further investigation into the source of the information
(D) misinterprets the results of the research by failing to note that the sleep technique suggested by scientists requires the sleeper to remove the socks before trying to sleep
(E) criticizes those suffering from insomnia for not taking well-known steps to solve their problem
3. Everyone knows that mothers love their babies more than anything else in the world, and mothers are the ones who should raise their children. No one can do the job of raising a child as well as that child's mother, so all mothers should stay home to care for their young children.
The reasoning in this argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument
(A) discounts evidence indicating that not all mothers love their babies wholeheartedly
(B) fails to consider that many children thrive in day care
(C) belittles the fact that many women have to work to help support their families
(D) is based on a generalization that is not supported with evidence
(E) suggests that fathers, grandparents, and other close relatives are inadequate caretakers
4. Researchers in Germany have discovered that dogs can understand human language quite well and that all are capable of comprehending a vocabulary no smaller than that understood by members of other intelligent animal species, such as chimpanzees, dolphins, and parrots. Many dogs, such as the border collie named Rico, can understand more than 200 words and are capable of learning new ones.
If all these statements are true, which one of the following must also be true?
(A) Many dog owners spell words that their dogs recognize, such as bath, instead of saying them out loud because they know their dogs will understand the words and overreact.
(B) Dogs can learn words only if their human trainers consistently use the same words for the same objects.
(C) Some chimpanzees are capable of understanding more than 200 words.
(D) Dogs in Germany understand more human words than dogs in other countries.
(E) A vocabulary training method effective with chimpanzees would also be effective with dogs.
5. The recipe says to bake this pie for 40 minutes at 250 degrees. I can bake it in half the time if I double the temperature, so I am going to bake it for 20 minutes at 500 degrees.
Which one of the following is most closely parallel in its flawed reasoning to the flawed reasoning in this argument?
(A) The label on the aspirin bottle says to take one aspirin every four hours. My headache is very bad, so I will take two aspirin every four hours.
(B) The directions on the bag of cat food say to give a 9-pound cat 1 cup of food every day. My cat weighs 13 pounds, so I will give her 1.5 cups of food every day.
(C) My neighbor wants me to give her plant a gallon of water every day. I will not have to water it as often if I give it more water each time, so I am going to give it 2 gallons of water every other day.
(D) The hair-highlighting kit says to leave the bleach on my hair for 20 minutes and then wash it out. I want my hair to be very blond, so I am going to leave the bleach on my hair for 40 minutes.
(E) The express train goes twice as fast as the local train but costs twice as much. I want to reach my destination quickly, so I will pay twice the price of the local train to ride the express.
6. Businessman: It makes absolutely no sense for businesses to engage in charitable giving or socially conscious activities. The whole purpose of a business is to maximize profits for its owners or shareholders.
The reasoning in this argument is most vulnerable to criticism because the argument fails to consider the possibility that
(A) the IRS allows businesses to deduct some of the money they spend on charitable contributions
(B) the goodwill and publicity generated by charitable giving can increase a business's sales significantly
(C) not every business owner believes that the single and entire purpose of the business is maximizing profits for owners and shareholders
(D) an increasing number of investors seek out socially conscious mutual funds
(E) some businesses that spend a good portion of their profits on charity still make a large profit overall
7. Nutritionist: The United States is currently facing an epidemic of obesity. Average weights have increased in all populations and at all ages. This is almost certainly due to the pervasiveness of fast food, which every citizen is consuming in larger quantities than two decades ago.
Which one of the following, if true, would most call into question the nutritionist's explanation of the obesity epidemic?
(A) Though average weights have increased, the weight gain has occurred exclusively among people who were already overweight; thin people have not gained weight, despite the fact that they, too, are consuming more fast food than was the case two decades ago.
(B) The increase in average weights has reached down into populations of children, resulting in incidences of type 2 diabetes, which formerly was considered an exclusively adult disease, occurring in people under the age of 14.
(C) Some nutritionists believe that some of the weight gain among Americans is due to the substitution of high-fructose corn syrup for sugar in the soft drinks served at fast food restaurants.
(D) Many school districts have ended physical education programs in recent years, citing lack of funding and the need to spend most school time on academic subjects rather than sports and exercise.
(E) At the same time the overall population has grown heavier, the ideal of beauty has grown thinner, with near-anorexic young women setting an impossible standard of attractiveness.
8. All human beings are primates. All primates are mammals. All mammals are vertebrates. Therefore, all human beings are both mammals and vertebrates.
Which one of the following arguments is most similar in its pattern of reasoning to this argument?
(A) All dogs are canines. All canines are mammals. All canines are vertebrates. Therefore, all dogs are both mammals and vertebrates.
(B) All flies are insects. All insects are arthropods. All arthropods are invertebrates. Therefore, all flies are both arthropods and invertebrates.
(C) All whales are cetaceans. All cetaceans are mammals. All mammals have mammary glands. Therefore, all whales have mammary glands.
(D) All snails are mollusks. All mollusks have shells. All oysters are bivalves. All bivalves have shells. Therefore, all creatures with shells are bivalves and mollusks.
(E) All gorillas are primates. All chimpanzees are primates. All primates are vertebrates. Therefore, all gorillas and chimpanzees are vertebrates.
9. Sergeant: Ordinarily, all soldiers must obey every order from their superiors. There is an exception, though; when a superior orders a soldier to commit an act that is against the law, then it is permissible for the soldier to refuse to carry out the order.
Which one of the following judgments conforms most closely to the principle stated by the sergeant?
(A) It is permissible for a soldier to refuse to obey an order to torture and abuse prisoners of war because that would violate national and international law.
(B) It is permissible for a solder to refuse to obey an order to fire on the enemy because the soldier believes that killing other humans is immoral.
(C) It is permissible for a soldier to refuse to obey an order stationing him in another country because he does not believe that the military should be in that country.
(D) It is permissible for a soldier to refuse to obey an order to imprison an enemy soldier because the soldier believes that such imprisonment should be against the law.
(E) It is permissible for a soldier to refuse to obey an order to bomb a town because the soldier knows that civilians would be among the casualties.
10. Legal theorist: It is impossible for the states to regulate obscenity without violating the constitutional guarantee of free speech. U.S. courts have struggled since the 1950s to define obscenity and have for the most part failed to come up with a consistent definition that works reliably. In 1964, Justice Stewart summed up the difficulty of this problem by declining to suggest a definition but stating that, for his part, “I know it when I see it.” Clearly, coming up with a suitable definition of obscenity that does not encroach upon non-obscene speech is unachievable.
What is the main point of the legal theorist's argument?
(A) Because defining obscenity at the federal level is impossible, the states should create their own standards of decency tailored to local community preferences.
(B) It is impossible to pass laws prohibiting obscenity without violating the free speech rights of those producing the material.
(C) The difficulty of defining obscenity is proof of the fact that courts and legislatures shouldn't be involved in regulating speech of any kind.
(D) It will be impossible to formulate a legally suitable definition of obscenity.
(E) The problem of defining obscenity was most succinctly stated by Justice Stewart in a 1964 decision.
11. No employer wants to face the liability it would incur if a drug-using employee made a serious mistake on the job. The best way to avoid this situation is to require all employees to have their urine tested before hiring and then to perform urine tests on all employees at random times. These urine tests help employers determine which of their employees are regular users of serious drugs such as cocaine, methamphetamines, heroin, and cocaine.
Each of the following, if true, would cast doubt on the author's reasoning EXCEPT:
(A) Testing a strand of hair is a much more reliable method of identifying those who use serious drugs regularly; residue of illicit drugs remains in hair for three months.
(B) Urine tests cannot spot cocaine, heroin, or methamphetamines that were taken more than one or two days previously, so weekend drug users can avoid detection fairly easily.
(C) Random drug testing costs the American workplace many millions every year and only catches a small percentage of those who have consumed drugs.
(D) Most consumers want to feel sure that the employees of businesses they patronize are not abusing serious drugs on the job.
(E) Employees can easily cheat on urine tests by purchasing urine from businesses that sell it specifically to help people pass workplace drug tests.
12. Albert, a careful shopper, bought a pair of shoes from a well-known catalog, choosing the catalog based on its guarantee. This guarantee states that the seller will take back any item of merchandise and provide the buyer with either a replacement item or a full refund at any time and for any reason. Over the next 20 years, Albert acquired seven pairs of shoes from the catalog by returning the shoes whenever they wore out and requesting a replacement pair. He never paid for a pair of shoes other than the original pair. When his wife criticized him for taking advantage of the catalog company, he replied that he had done nothing wrong.
Which one of the following principles, if established, most helps to justify Albert's position?
(A) A buyer and a seller enter into an unwritten contract when the seller offers an item for sale and the buyer agrees to purchase it for the seller's stated price.
(B) A customer should not take unfair advantage of a catalog's goodwill gesture and should understand that an unconditional guarantee is not meant to be identical to a lifetime guarantee.
(C) A seller should not make promises that it does not intend to keep because there will always be customers who try to get the maximum value of every dollar by abusing sellers if necessary.
(D) It is the seller's responsibility to set prices for its merchandise that are sufficient to cover its expenses and generate a profit.
(E) A seller is obligated to observe the terms of the contract of sale, even if doing so works to the seller's own disadvantage.
13. Abelard: The city should provide more money for public schools. More money would allow the schools to hire more teachers and reduce class sizes from 30 to 25 children, which would result in a better education for all students.
Heloise: I don't believe hiring more teachers and reducing class sizes will benefit students. Good teachers should be able to teach as many students as they are given. A class of 30 students isn't too large for a good teacher to handle.
Which one of the following, if true, most undermines Heloise's objection to Abelard's analysis?
(A) Schools in Japan typically have between 40 and 45 students per classroom, and the Japanese educational system is widely believed to be excellent.
(B) A school district in another state reduced class sizes from 30 to 25 students; within a year, average test scores had increased by 25 percent.
(C) Teachers like smaller classes better than larger ones because smaller classes are easier to manage.
(D) Many taxpayers want to spend as little as possible on public schools.
(E) Private schools often limit classes to 18 or fewer students.
14. In 2003, luggage belonging to 2.2 million passengers failed to arrive at the destination at the same time as the passenger. Travelers should never check their bags when they fly on commercial airlines.
Which one of the following, if true, most weakens this argument?
(A) Airlines advise passengers to pack a small carry-on bag containing essential medicines, eyeglasses or contact lenses, toiletries, and a change of clothes.
(B) When a traveler loses her luggage, she must sometimes hastily buy clothes for business meetings, resulting in great expense.
(C) Buying new clothes to replace those that were packed in lost luggage is not always possible; for example, passengers who arrive at their destination during a national holiday may have to wait a day or two for shops to open.
(D) Many holiday travelers plan to shop at their destinations anyway, and losing luggage is a good excuse to buy new clothes.
(E) Despite the large number of lost bags, airlines only lose the bags of 4 out of every 1,000 passengers, so the odds of arriving without checked luggage are very low.
15. LASIK, or Laser-Assisted in Situ Keratomileusis, is a surgical procedure used to correct vision problems such as nearsightedness. In the procedure, a surgeon cuts a flap from the surface of the patient's cornea, uses a laser to reshape the middle portion of the cornea, and then replaces the flap. In most cases, LASIK can correct a patient's vision to near 20/20, eliminating the need for corrective lenses. Patients should be warned, though, that no doctor can guarantee a good result, and they do run the risk of side effects, including loss of vision, severe dry eyes, glare or halos that impair night vision, and loss of depth perception.
Which one of the following is most strongly supported by this information?
(A) Some patients who undergo LASIK find that they can no longer drive a car at night.
(B) A prospective LASIK patient must find a surgeon who is experienced in using the LASIK machinery.
(C) Patients who need reading glasses before undergoing LASIK often still need them after the procedure.
(D) Even if a patient achieves 20/20 vision after LASIK, his eyesight can still change with age, resulting in imperfect vision once again.
(E) LASIK is usually successful at improving a patient's vision, but it does not always result in perfect uncorrected eyesight and can create new problems for the patient.
16. Brightly lit high-rise buildings kill approximately 1 billion birds every year. The birds, flying on their migratory paths, become captivated by the lights in the building and fly toward them; they then either crash into the glass, which is invisible to them when interior lights are on, or they fly around and around the source of light until they are exhausted and tumble to the ground. On some mornings, janitors of high-rise buildings must shovel piles of dead birds from the sidewalk. A simple solution is very effective at combating this problem: If a building's residents simply turn off all interior lights at night, no birds will be attracted to the building.
If all these statements are true, then which one of the following must be false?
(A) Turning on the lights inside a building makes it easier for birds to see the glass windows and avoid flying into them.
(B) Many tenants of high-rise office buildings habitually leave their interior lights and signs lit up all night.
(C) In Chicago, two years after most tenants of high-rises agreed to turn off their lights at night, bird mortality fell by 80 percent.
(D) Rare species such as Kirtland's warbler are vulnerable to running into lighted buildings, which will speed up the eventual extinction of the species.
(E) Birds running into buildings is only a problem during the birds’ migrations between their northern and southern territories, just a few weeks out of the year.
17. Americans blame the outsourcing of jobs to foreign countries for high unemployment today, complaining that companies are taking jobs from U.S. citizens and sending them to other nations, where labor is less expensive. Statistics issued by the U.S. Department of Labor, however, indicate that only 9 percent of layoffs are due to outsourcing, and of that 9 percent, nearly three-quarters of the jobs are moved to other locations within the United States, not to foreign nations.
These statements, if true, most strongly support which one of the following?
(A) Americans who are laid off from their jobs are right to blame the government for encouraging businesses to look abroad for cheaper labor.
(B) American workers should not worry about losing their jobs to outsourcing.
(C) Outsourcing of jobs to foreign nations is an inevitable consequence of globalization, as are layoffs of American workers who do jobs that can be performed much more cheaply in other countries.
(D) Outsourcing to foreign countries is not nearly as important a cause of layoffs as many Americans mistakenly believe.
(E) Outsourcing of jobs to other locations within the United States does not disrupt the national economy but does benefit one local economy at the expense of another.
18. In many nations throughout the world, child labor is still prevalent. In some countries, more than half of the children under 14 work full time, often in dangerous conditions. This causes a cycle of poverty that is detrimental to the economic development of the countries; child labor is the result of poverty, but it also causes poverty to continue.
Which one of the following, if true, contributes most to this explanation of the cycle of poverty?
(A) Without a social safety net, poverty-stricken families have no alternative but to send their children to work in menial jobs.
(B) Many developing nations do not have enough schools to educate all the children born there, so parents choose to send their children to work instead.
(C) Girls who are forced to work as children tend to grow up with health problems that affect the health and prosperity of their own children.
(D) Children who work cannot go to school, and without an education, they cannot get high-paying jobs as adults, so their own children are forced to work instead of attending school.
(E) In some developing nations, the middle and upper class depend on a plentiful supply of cheap servants, usually in the form of young girls from poor families.
19. California has passed a law that will require car manufacturers to drastically reduce the fossil-fuel emissions from automobiles in the next five years. These requirements are far stricter than those imposed by the federal government. Seven other states on both coasts have also passed laws ordering reduced emissions, and several others have announced plans to follow suit. Environmentalists praise the new law, asserting that these states’ efforts will slow global warming.
Which one of the following is an assumption required by the environmentalists in making their assertion?
(A) States on the coasts are more likely to be interested in environmental issues.
(B) Reducing fossil-fuel emissions will slow global warming.
(C) Car manufacturers could have reduced emissions long ago but did not because the law did not force them to.
(D) Individual states have environmental priorities that are different from those of the federal government.
(E) Environmentalists have lobbied car manufacturers to reduce emissions.
20. Philip: Hybrid cars are the best response to the impending energy crisis. They are powered by a combination of gasoline and electric power; the gasoline engine recharges the battery when it runs, resulting in an extremely efficient use of fuel. They get excellent mileage, have good power, and are very comfortable.
Ryan: Instead of developing hybrid cars, car manufacturers should have kept making small, light, fuel-efficient, gasoline-powered cars. Fuel-efficient cars from the 1970s got better gas mileage than today's hybrids and did not come with the added burden of a complex battery that will inevitably become a problem when it comes time to dispose of it.
Ryan responds to Philip by
(A) denying the severity of the problem Philip addresses
(B) using an analogy to reveal a situation that Philip has not considered
(C) challenging the validity of the information Philip provides in support of his solution
(D) arguing that an alternate solution would have better dealt with the problem Philip addresses
(E) providing a counterexample that calls Philip's reasoning into question
21. Legislator: Our state is deeply interested in maintaining the integrity of families. We believe families are the building blocks of our state, and we want to do everything we can to support them. To help families stay intact, we have designed a brochure that will be distributed to all new mothers and to girls and young women who seek birth control at publicly funded clinics. This brochure emphasizes the importance of the family and informs women that they should finish school, find a job, and get married before having children.
The legislator's reasoning is most vulnerable to criticism because it fails to recognize that
(A) many women do not want to be married
(B) no one reads pamphlets provided by the state
(C) the main problem facing single mothers is lack of financial support from the fathers of their children
(D) families may not consist of only females
(E) girls who are seeking birth control at publicly funded clinics are not the teenagers most likely to get pregnant
22. Stuart and Steve each drove from Yokohama to Tokyo, leaving at the same time. Stuart drove his car. Steve drove a small motor scooter that could not go more than 25 kph. They both drove the same route, which had a speed limit for cars of 60 kph. Yet, they both arrived at their destination at the same time.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to explain why Stuart and Steve arrived in Tokyo at the same time?
(A) Steve did not drive faster than 25 kph, but he did sometimes drive on the shoulder to pass stopped cars.
(B) The traffic between Tokyo and Yokohama was so bad that Stuart could not go faster than 25 kph.
(C) Stuart drove the speed limit when he could.
(D) Stuart and Steve relied on the same navigational aids.
(E) Stuart had to stop at 74 red lights, and Steve had to stop at 68 red lights.
23. Judge: The defendant has admitted that he is prone to road rage, which is why he attacked the driver at the red light. In addition to a fine and community service, I am going to sentence the defendant to yoga classes, which will help him bring his anger under control.
Which one of the following is an assumption on which the judge's reasoning depends?
(A) Practitioners of yoga never attack fellow drivers.
(B) Fines and community service are not sufficient penalty for road rage.
(C) Uncontrolled anger is a cause of road rage.
(D) A punishment should be modeled on the crime.
(E) The defendant's road rage was justified but still inexcusable.
24. At least 29 million people used online matchmaking and dating services last year, and that number is expected to increase in the near future, but prospective users of such services should be careful. Far more men than women visit dating sites, which makes it easy for women to find partners but much harder for men. Users can easily lie and claim to be single when in fact they are not. The sites can't guarantee that no sexual predators will try to use the service. And because users must rely on the honesty of fellow participants in describing themselves, some hopeful daters receive unpleasant shocks when meeting their correspondents for the first time.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main conclusion of this argument?
(A) Women who use online dating services face much better odds than men of finding a partner.
(B) Online dating can be very dangerous because the dating services cannot effectively bar sexual predators from participating.
(C) Despite the popularity of online dating services, participants should realize that such services come with many potential pitfalls.
(D) Online dating services should insist that no one who is married or otherwise attached to a partner participate in their programs.
(E) In the next five years, millions of people will seek out online matchmaking services, type in their personal data, send in photographs of themselves, and peruse the vital statistics of other people using the same service.
25. Art critic: Formalism is an interpretive method that emphasizes the form of an artwork as opposed to its content. Formalist criticism excludes external considerations such as symbolism, history, politics, economics, or authorship, focusing instead on the forms structuring a work of art. Beginning in the 1970s, formalism was often allied to structuralist modes of thinking that sought to understand the workings of an artwork based on its internal properties. The postmodern reaction against formalism in the 1980s largely condemned it on the basis of its disinterest in worldly affairs.
Which one of the following principles, if valid, most helps to justify the postmodern reaction to formalism?
(A) Everything necessary to comprehend a work of art is contained within that work of art.
(B) Art appreciation depends on the personal taste of the observer.
(C) A viewer's pleasure in a work of art emanates from the work of art itself rather than its subject matter.
(D) An artwork's meaning is dependent on contingent features of the artist's psyche and society rather than on any inherent quality of the work itself.
(E) Any attempt to deconstruct and subsequently explain an abstract work of art essentially strips it of its intrinsic value.
Two sisters are planning a horseback-riding vacation in August between one sister's taking the MCAT and beginning the fall semester, which gives them two weeks to work with. They must choose between two trips, one in Ireland and one in the Dominican Republic. Within the time limit of 35 minutes, Write an essay in favor of choosing one destination over the other based on the following considerations:
· The sisters want to spend as many days as possible riding horses.
· The sisters want to improve their riding skills through instruction by qualified teachers.
The riding vacation in Ireland would place the sisters on fine, well-trained horses in the hands of excellent riding instructors. Every morning the sisters would spend two hours in the ring, working on equitation skills and jumping, and then every afternoon they would go for a trail ride through the countryside. They could expect their riding skills to improve a great deal, although they would not have much free time to simply ride around on their horses. Due to price constraints and the pre-med sister's schedule, if the sisters go to Ireland they will be able to spend only one week there.
If the sisters choose the vacation in the Dominican Republic, the favorable exchange rate and cheaper air fares would allow them to stay for two weeks. They would ride horses every day with an experienced guide, who would take them on trails in the mountains, through sugar cane fields, and on the beach. They would also be allowed to ride freely as much as they wanted. The guide in the Dominican Republic is not a qualified equitation teacher, and he would not instruct the sisters on riding technique beyond the basics of handling the horses safely.