LSAT For Dummies, 2nd Edition (2014)

Part VI. The Real Deal: Full-Length Practice LSATs

Chapter 17. Perfecting with Practice: LSAT Practice Exam 2

Ready for another practice test? Sure you are!

Like the previous practice exam in Chapter 15, we set this one up like a real LSAT. For best results, try to take this practice exam under simulated LSAT conditions.

1.     Find a quiet place to work, where nothing can distract or interrupt you.

2.     Use the answer grid provided and mark your answers with a No. 2 pencil.

3.     Set your watch or alarm clock for 35-minute intervals.

4.     Don't go to the next section until the time allotted for the current section is up.

5.     If you finish early, check your work for that section only.

6.     Don't take a break during any one section.

7.     Give yourself exactly one 10-minute break between sections III and IV.

The answers and explanations to this test's questions are in Chapter 18. When you finish your test, check the accuracy of your responses using the answer key at the end of Chapter 18. Count the number of questions you answered correctly in each section; add those together to compute your raw score. Then read the explanations for the questions you missed to learn how to answer the question type correctly in the future. If you have time, read through the explanations to the questions you aced, too, to gain further insight into mastering the LSAT.

remember.eps Keep in mind that this practice exam isn't an official LSAT. Although it serves as good practice for your test-taking technique and has the advantage of detailed explanations of all answers in the following chapter, don't assume that your score on this test is exactly the score you can expect when you take a real LSAT. LSAT PrepTests are still the best practice for that, but even they can't duplicate the stress you'll feel on test day and, therefore, still can't tell you what score you'll receive when you take the LSAT for real.

Section I

Logical Reasoning

Time: 35 minutes for 24 questions

Directions: Read the passage and choose the best answer. Some questions may have more than one answer that looks right. Select the one that answers the question most completely. Don't assume anything that isn't directly stated, and don't let your imagination run wild; all the information you need is in the arguments and the answer choices.

1. Consumer review: This mail-order catalog claims that its customers save money by buying clothing through it, but the economy it promises is illusory because it only occasionally marks down its normal prices.

Which one of the following is an assumption on which the consumer review's argument depends?

(A) This catalog's competitors mark down their normal prices more frequently and by greater amounts.

(B) This catalog is economical only when its normal prices are marked down more than occasionally.

(C) This catalog marks its normal prices down by smaller amounts than do its competitors.

(D) The competitors have lower normal prices.

(E) Consumers should make purchases by mail order only when the normal prices are marked down.

2. The archaeological findings at level IVa of a bronze-age settlement in Turkey show how the settlement met its end. The village was surrounded by a thick, defensive wall. The findings include a large number of clay vessels sunk in the ground, as though for long-term storage of food during a siege. A number of bronze arrowheads were found, and at least one of the structures seems to have suffered a fire. Therefore, this settlement was clearly destroyed in war, either with its neighbors or with foreign invaders.

Which one of the following most accurately describes a flaw in the argument?

(A) The argument is circular, with the premises taking for granted the truth of the conclusion.

(B) The evidence is varied, but the conclusion is unified and therefore suspect.

(C) The argument depends on intermediate conclusions, which make the final conclusion invalid.

(D) The argument makes a historical conclusion but does not give specific dates to support it.

(E) None of the pieces of evidence point directly to the conclusion, and all of them could lead to different conclusions.

3. Oceanographer:The size of oceanic waves is a function of the velocity of the wind and of fetch, the length of the surface of the water subject to those winds. The impact of waves against a coastline is a function of the size of the waves and the shape of the sea bottom. The degree of erosion to which a coastline is subject is a function of the average impact of waves and the geologic composition of the coastline.

If the oceanographer's statements are true, which one of the following must also be true?

(A) The fetch of winds is related to the shape of the sea bottom.

(B) The size of oceanic waves will not fluctuate far from an average for any given stretch of ocean.

(C) The degree of erosion to which a coastline is subject is related to the shape of the sea bottom.

(D) The size of oceanic waves is related to the shape of the sea bottom.

(E) The average velocity of the wind in an area plays no role in the degree of erosion to which a coastline is subject.

4. Historian: For a historian to assert that one historical event or circumstance caused another is nearly impossible. Given any coherent historical narrative, the sequence of events makes the notion of causation a tempting trap; a subsequent event can seem a necessary outcome of those that preceded it. But this is a mere consequence of the backward-looking perspective of the historian's art. That one event did in fact happen, and that other events did in fact happen prior to it does not make the subsequent event inevitable or a direct outcome of those that went before.

The claim that “this is a mere consequence of the backward-looking perspective of the historian's art” plays which one of the following roles in the historian's argument?

(A) It is used to identify the theoretical imperative that is the argument's concern.

(B) It is an illustration of a premise that is used to support the argument's conclusion.

(C) It is used to indirectly support a claim that the argument in turn uses to directly support the conclusion.

(D) It is used to explain a consideration that may be taken to undermine the argument's conclusion.

(E) It is the conclusion that the argument aims to support.

5. Despite five consecutive years in which global consumption of grain has been greater than global production, it is unlikely that the world is facing a near-term crisis in the food supply. The average shortfalls have been mainly due to reduced output from farms in China, which is moving from a policy of central control over agricultural production to a more market-driven model. Therefore, if demand for grain continues to fall short of supply, Chinese production of grain should increase dramatically.

Which one of the following principles most helps to justify this reasoning?

(A) Global markets respond more slowly than regional markets, so local rates of production usually change more rapidly than the global average.

(B) When agricultural production is centrally controlled, it is unable to respond to changing demand by adjusting rates of supply.

(C) Average shortfalls are most readily remedied by local increases in production.

(D) When agricultural production is market-driven, it is likely to respond to rising demand by increasing production.

(E) Centrally controlled agricultural production has been shown to be more inefficient than market-driven models.

6. Economist:Health insurers are largely immune to the factors that are limiting profit in many sectors of the healthcare economy. Consumers have shown a willingness to pay almost any price for health insurance premiums. Capital demands, which are the responsibility of doctors and hospitals, are increasing dramatically, even as cost-containment measures, largely encouraged by the insurers and their friends in government, have forced new levels of fiscal discipline upon hospitals and doctors. Patients still need MRIs and buildings to put them in, but hospitals are limited in how much they can charge patients for the use of these facilities.

Which one of the following most accurately describes the role that the statement “patients still need MRIs and buildings to put them in” plays in the economist's argument?

(A) It is a specific example of a general condition described in the course of the argument.

(B) It is used to counter a consideration that may be taken to undermine the argument.

(C) It is used to indirectly support the claim made by the argument.

(D) It describes a social side effect of the benefit with which the argument is concerned.

(E) It introduces the conclusion that the argument intends to support.

7. As peer-to-peer (PTP) file-sharing networks flourished, the ability of consumers to download music without paying seriously damaged the prosperity of the recording industry. The numbers speak for themselves. During this time, revenues from sales of CDs in the United States fell by tens of millions of dollars a year, despite the fact that prices for individual CDs kept pace with inflation. Clearly, then, PTP file-sharing was killing the recording industry.

The argument depends on assuming which one of the following?

(A) that all sharing from PTP networks violates copyright

(B) that no other explanations exist for the decreasing revenues from CD sales

(C) that the musicians and producers have a right to profit from the distribution of music

(D) that people who download music would otherwise have purchased it on CD

(E) that a complex relationship exists between file-sharing and the market in music, both online and on CD

8. Engineer:In any complex machine on which human life depends, critical systems must have many layers of built-in redundancy. So in designing airplanes, whose control surfaces depend on hydraulic systems for their movement, engineers must include multiple independent redundant systems of hydraulic lines, each capable of giving the pilot control of the airplane's control surfaces. More redundancy is always better than less, so if an airplane design is deemed relatively safe with three redundant hydraulic systems, it must be deemed safer with four, and safer still with five.

The engineer's argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it

(A) assumes that redundant systems will not be subject to simultaneous failure

(B) fails to take into account any practical factors that may limit the number of redundant systems or practical trade-offs involved in increasing levels of redundancy

(C) focuses on one area — movement of the control surfaces — without taking into account other important considerations of safety

(D) is limited to a single kind of engineering project and may not be applicable as a general rule

(E) gives no comprehensive criteria for judging relative levels of safety, according to which you could evaluate its claim that increasing redundancy yields increasing safety

9. Forcing businesses to furnish employees with paid leave for family concerns, such as paternity leave or leave to care for a sick child, is a terrible idea. If a business allows employees to take this time off, the workers will take advantage of the privilege and come to work as little as possible. This will destroy productivity and workplace morale.

Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?

(A) European countries guarantee employees generous family leave and paid vacation time, but the European standard of living is slightly below that of the United States.

(B) Most male workers refuse to take paternity leave even though it is allowed under federal law and their employers encourage it; they fear they may anger co-workers and harm their chances for promotion if they take time off for what is still seen as a frivolous reason.

(C) The FMLA requires employers to grant employees 12 weeks a year of unpaid leave for family purposes; although employers save money because the leave is unpaid, they often must spend money to find a replacement for the employee who takes time off.

(D) In some workplaces, the loss of a single employee at a busy time of year can be devastating, even if that employee plans to return after a few weeks; allowing family leave can overwhelm the employees who stay on the job.

(E) Allowing employees to take leave for family matters reduces absenteeism, improves morale, and surprisingly increases productivity because the employees who are granted leave tend to work much harder and more efficiently when they come back to work.

10. Casino gambling tends to be detrimental to individuals who live in the county where the casino is located, but paradoxically, it benefits businesses in those same counties. Individual bankruptcy rates in counties with casinos are more than double the national average. Bankruptcy rates for businesses in the same counties are 35 percent lower than the national average.

Which one of the following, if true, most helps to explain this apparent paradox?

(A) Businesses profit from casino gambling because they take in money from local and visiting gamblers, whereas local individuals have more opportunities to lose money gambling.

(B) Casinos are known to take advantage of gamblers by setting odds in such a way that the casino always makes a profit.

(C) Counties with casinos have many business opportunities for entrepreneurs who want to open hotels, restaurants, and other service businesses.

(D) Gambling functions as an addictive disease in many people; they find themselves unable to stop gambling even when they're seriously in debt and must borrow money to continue.

(E) Counties that vote to allow casinos to open generally are poor counties with high unemployment and low levels of education.

11. Social services worker: We approve of the government's new policy on food stamps. Instead of issuing actual stamps, the government now provides recipients with debit cards that they can use to buy groceries. Each month their accounts are electronically credited with their allowance, and they can spend the money just as if it were in a bank account but only on specific approved items. This method eliminates the inconvenience and embarrassment associated with food stamps, increases the number of qualified recipients who actually buy food with their allowance, and prevents the type of fraud that was a problem associated with the paper coupons.

All of the following, if true, help to support the position of the social services worker EXCEPT:

(A) In communities that use the food stamp debit cards, participation in food stamp programs has increased 74 percent since changing to cards from coupons.

(B) Paper food stamp coupons have long been abused by people who trade them for drugs or weapons at several cents on the dollar.

(C) The food stamp program is meant to improve nutrition among people with low incomes, and the government has long wanted to make sure program funds are used to buy food.

(D) People used to have to pick up their paper coupons at a government office once a month, which proved too inconvenient for many people who lacked transportation or free time.

(E) Some food stamp recipients say they prefer the paper coupons because they can't tell how much money they have in their debit card accounts.

12. Primatologist: We have discovered a new kind of primate in Madagascar, the fat-tailed lemur. These lemurs hibernate, sleeping in holes in trees for up to seven months out of the year. Winter temperatures in Madagascar rarely drop below 86 degrees, so these lemurs do not hibernate to escape the cold but perhaps to conserve energy during the dry season, when food is scarce. This is the first time anyone has found an animal that hibernates during hot weather, disproving the common belief that only animals in cold climates hibernate.

Which one of the following most accurately describes the role played in the primatologist's argument by the assertion that this is the first time anyone has found an animal that hibernates during hot weather?

(A) It challenges the long-held belief that primates never hibernate.

(B) It accuses scientists who have studied hibernation in the past of wrongfully assuming that hibernation only occurs in cold weather.

(C) It highlights the importance of this discovery because it disproves a long-held theory about hibernation.

(D) It calls into question the assumption that this behavior is true hibernation and suggests that it may be something else.

(E) It sets up a rival theory so that the primatologist can disprove it.

13. Director:I've decided to cast the famous American actor Burt Lancaster as the prince in my epic film of the Sicilian classic novel The Leopard. I want him for his star appeal and his massive dignity. The film will be in Italian, but Lancaster can't speak Italian, so I'll let him speak his lines in English and then have an Italian actor dub them in Italian. The result will be a seamless Italian film with a famous actor to help sales.

Which one of the following is an assumption on which the director's argument depends?

(A) Italian audiences will refuse to see a film of an Italian classic that does not use an Italian actor in the title role.

(B) The other actors in the film may object to playing their scenes with a character who cannot speak their language.

(C) To increase sales, having a famous actor in the title role of a film is more important than having an actor who can speak the film's language.

(D) Teaching Lancaster enough Italian to allow him to deliver his lines in the correct language would be impossible.

(E) Lancaster would feel uncomfortable working with a director and crew who did not speak English.

14. Alberto:We should eradicate mosquitoes from the earth. Mosquitoes cause a great deal of harm to humans, transmitting serious diseases such as malaria, dengue fever, and encephalitis, and they don't do anything desirable. Ecologists have found that the loss of a single species from an ecosystem doesn't usually harm the rest of the ecosystem, so eradicating mosquitoes wouldn't harm the environment, which of course would be undesirable.

Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken Alberto's argument?

(A) Mosquito-borne diseases such as malaria are responsible for millions of deaths and millions of dollars of lost productivity every year.

(B) One inevitable consequence of restoring wetlands to their original state is an increase in mosquito populations.

(C) Mosquitoes have historically kept human and other animal populations down by spreading disease among them.

(D) Many animals eat mosquitoes and other flying insects.

(E) The only substances that could eradicate all mosquitoes would also kill off many birds and beneficial insects.

15. Public parks are intended for use by all citizens equally. But when groups such as schools or churches use a park for parties or other organized events, they bring large numbers of people to the park at one time. Therefore, there should be strict rules against large groups using public parks.

The argument's reasoning is vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument takes for granted that

(A) large groups of people may be noisy or become violent

(B) individuals have complained about large groups of people using public parks

(C) public parks are designed with use by organized groups in mind

(D) members of organized groups, like other individuals, pay taxes that support public parks

(E) large numbers of people coming to a park prevent individuals from enjoying use of the park

16. Employers have recently begun to offer their employees the opportunity to save money for future healthcare or family care expenses in flexible spending accounts, or FSAs. These accounts allow employees to set aside pretax salary income for specific expenses, which can result in a substantial savings on income tax. Surprisingly, though, very few employees have taken advantage of FSAs.

Which one of the following, if true, contributes most to an explanation of why few employees have chosen to save money in FSAs?

(A) Insurance companies have started to offer employees debit cards to go with FSAs, which makes it much easier to spend FSA funds.

(B) Not all employers offer FSAs to their employees.

(C) Employees can use funds saved in FSAs to pay for over-the-counter drugs and other healthcare costs that are not covered by insurance.

(D) Funds saved in FSAs must be spent during the plan year or forfeited.

(E) Employers who move to consumer-driven healthcare plans with high deductibles are finding that more of their employees choose to open FSAs.

17. Many Latin American countries established democratic governments in the past decade. Recently, however, six elected heads of state have been ousted during violent revolutions. A majority of people in those countries, dissatisfied with continuing poverty, have stated that they would install a dictator if he promised to improve economic conditions.

These statements, if true, most strongly support which one of the following conclusions?

(A) Some 220 million Latin Americans, nearly half the population of the region, live in grinding poverty without many of the basic necessities of life.

(B) The governments of these six Latin American countries, though democratically elected, are plagued by corruption and graft.

(C) A majority of residents of these six Latin American countries do not believe that democracy is necessarily the best form of government for them.

(D) Weak governments in Latin America are one of the reasons drug trafficking and illegal immigration to the United States have increased in the last decade.

(E) Some citizens of Latin American countries have expressed the opinion that rule by organized crime is preferable to democratically elected leadership.

18. Years ago people enjoyed homemade eggnog and cookie dough made with raw eggs without fear, but today raw eggs are spoken of as a biohazard, a potential hotbed of salmonella waiting to cause disease and death with the slightest contact. In previous decades, salmonella was generally found on the outside of eggshells, mainly from the eggs having come in contact with the waste products of the chickens who laid them. More recently, however, a growing number of chickens are themselves infected with salmonella, thus allowing the bacterium to be present inside the egg itself. So where once simply washing uncracked eggs protected diners from illness — usually some form of gastrointestinal distress, only rarely fatal — now only cooking eggs thoroughly can guarantee a safe dining experience.

Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main conclusion of the argument?

(A) Salmonella poisoning is on the increase but is rarely fatal.

(B) The relationship between salmonella and eggs has in fact changed over the years, justifying the recent caution with which people regard raw eggs.

(C) Some caution is merited when handling raw eggs, although the facts behind salmonella and eggs do not merit extreme levels of caution.

(D) The risk of food poisoning from eating raw eggs is related to the conditions under which the eggs are produced, which have changed over time.

(E) The caution with which people regard their food is related to a better understanding of the science behind food poisoning.

19. Software engineers know that a poorly written application can consume more memory than it should and that running out of memory can cause an application to crash. However, if a crashing application causes the whole operating system to crash, the fault lies with the operating system.

Which one of the following, if true, is least helpful in establishing that this conclusion is properly drawn?

(A) Operating systems with generous amounts of memory are less susceptible to crashing, even when applications are poorly written.

(B) Operating systems can isolate the memory used by individual applications, even when an application uses a large amount of memory.

(C) An operating system can monitor an application's consumption of memory and take action when that gets too high.

(D) Techniques for programming operating systems to catch and handle memory errors are well-defined and well-known among programmers.

(E) Because many applications can run simultaneously under a single operating system, the operating system should have a well-defined method of managing memory consumption.

20. The document was published under a license that allows others to copy it and disseminate it as long as they do so for noncommercial purposes only. Company A included copies of the document in a training manual that it marketed and sold, arguing that the license was invalid. However, even if the license were proved invalid, the copyright was still valid, leaving Company A with no rights to use the document in any way at all.

Which one of the following situations best demonstrates the principle illustrated by this argument?

(A) The warranty on the laptop computer claimed to be rendered void if the user opened the case. But the manual that came with the laptop included instructions for opening the case to upgrade the computer's memory. Consumers successfully argued that those instructions constituted an endorsement of users’ opening the case and that, therefore, the warranty was not void.

(B) When the 13-year-olds were caught trying to enter an NC-17 movie at a multiplex, they argued that the cashier at the ticket counter had sold them tickets for that movie. The manager explained that the cashier's error did not change the rules of age limits and movie ratings.

(C) A restaurant was fined by the Alcoholic Beverage Commission for serving distilled liquors when its license covered only beer and wine. The restaurant's manager argued that he had applied for the proper license and expected to receive it within days. The ABC countered that a license was valid only from the moment the restaurant posted it on the premises.

(D) Ted's parents have stated that he cannot drive the station wagon unless it is to Alice's house. When his mother saw the station wagon parked at the mall, some miles away, Ted argued that Alice was not at home. Ted's mom pointed out that he ought, upon discovering that fact, to have driven straight home.

(E) The celebrity sued the magazine for publishing photographs of him sunning himself in his backyard, which was enclosed by a high fence. The magazine claimed that he was a public figure and did, therefore, have the same rights to privacy as normal citizens. The celebrity claimed that the extensive fence around his yard justified his privacy rights when behind it, despite his prominent stature in the eyes of the public.

21. Scholar:Greek epic poetry emerged as an art form before any of it was ever written down. Singers developed a specialized vocabulary that allowed them to compose poems about the heroes of the Trojan War as they sang them. These poems were neither made up from scratch as the singer sang nor fixed texts that were memorized and repeated verbatim. Even after written texts were created that captured these orally composed poems, the tradition continued to evolve, with written texts of the same poem differing from place to place and from time to time, according to the circumstances of their production and the interests of their creators and their intended audiences.

If the scholar's statements are true, which one of the following must be true?

(A) Each written edition derived from the first written version of an orally composed epic.

(B) No single written edition of a Greek epic can claim to represent the “original” version.

(C) The poems inevitably grew longer and more narratologically complex over the centuries.

(D) The tradition of composing epics orally died away as the poems came to be written down.

(E) The older editions of the poems were less likely to have been influenced by local politics than subsequent editions.

22. Curator: This museum does not grant people the right to use images of items in its collection in online publications. We are obliged to do everything in our power to ensure the continued appeal of visiting our collection in person.

The curator's argument depends on assuming which one of the following?

(A) Taking photographs of art objects, especially using a flash, can damage the objects by accelerating the fading of paint.

(B) The museum sells pictures of its collection in its gift shop, which is an important source of income for the museum.

(C) Images placed online are easily copied and reused by other people.

(D) The quality of most electronic images, especially those online, falls short of the professional standards of the museum.

(E) If people see online images of items in the museum's collection, they will no longer be interested in seeing the collection with their own eyes.

23. Career counselor: Many large international companies have changed their practices regarding international assignments. They are placing much more emphasis on helping spouses of expatriate employees to adjust to the foreign environment. This has reduced premature returns by 67 percent.

Which one of the following is an assumption upon which the career counselor's argument depends?

(A) Spousal and marital difficulties were formerly responsible for a large number of premature returns from foreign assignments.

(B) When an employee is placed in a foreign assignment for a year or less, his or her family sees the assignment as an adventure.

(C) Expatriate employees work long hours and travel a great deal, and their children make new friends at school, but spouses often have no friends and no work to support them while they're abroad.

(D) The majority of international assignments today last for less than a year, but ten years ago, 70 percent of them lasted much longer than one year.

(E) Many companies now offer expatriate spouses language training, career guidance, and assistance in finding homes and schools.

24. Traveler:When I flew to Boston on Tuesday, I checked my suitcase but carried my computer on the plane. When I arrived at Logan Airport, none of the checked bags from the flight had arrived. The baggage office clerk was very helpful with my polite questions but punished the other passengers who were so rude by making them wait for her assistance.

Which one of the following principles is best illustrated by the traveler's reasoning?

(A) A stitch in time saves nine.

(B) Do not price an unborn calf.

(C) Do not put all your eggs in one basket.

(D) Neither a borrower nor a lender be.

(E) You catch more flies with honey than you do with vinegar.


Section II

Reading Comprehension

Time: 35 minutes for 26 questions

Directions: Read each passage and answer the questions that follow it. Some questions may have more than one answer that looks correct. In that case, pick the one that answers the question most completely and correctly. Don't assume anything that isn't stated in the passage or the questions. All the information you need to answer the questions is contained in the passage, questions, and answer choices.

Questions 1–6 refer to the following passage.


1.  Which one of the following most accurately states the main point of the passage?

(A) Ernest Everett Just was an extremely important biologist during the 20th century, both because of his contributions to the field of embryology and because of his race.

(B) Scientists tend to ignore the social, historical, and political forces that surround all scientific research and discovery, which makes their interpretations of scientific events incomplete.

(C) Biographies are a popular genre for children's books because they can tell discrete stories in an accessible fashion, incorporating scientific knowledge into a person's life and thereby making it more interesting to readers.

(D) Manning's work exemplifies how biography can be a powerful tool for a historian of science, who can use the genre to explore the effects of politics, economics, and emotions on the direction of scientific development.

(E) Kenneth Manning wrote Black Apollo to criticize racial prejudices and to prove that Ernest Everett Just could have been much more successful if he had not been the victim of discrimination.

2.  According to the passage, the main goal of the discipline called history of science is to

(A) illuminate the effects of social forces on scientists in a way that scientists themselves are unlikely to do

(B) explain scientific discoveries in a manner that is easily understood by non-scientists

(C) write biographies of important scientific figures that portray their work against a social and political background

(D) influence scientific research by identifying the most important scientific contributions in history

(E) provide an academic discipline that allows people without science training to study scientific concepts

3.  What is the primary purpose of the second paragraph?

(A) to describe the many things Ernest Everett Just accomplished despite the racial prejudice he faced

(B) to suggest that biography is really too simple a historical form for the historian of science to use to convey complex ideas

(C) to explain why biography is both a popular historical genre and a powerful medium for explaining the significance of scientific discoveries

(D) to argue against using biographies to teach children about scientific figures from the past

(E) to advocate increased teaching of the sciences in schools and universities

4.  The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements?

(A) One of the best ways to come to an understanding of the realities of race relations and scientific development in the 20th century is to read an in-depth account of the life of one of the people who lived and worked in that world.

(B) The goal of a historian of science is to glorify the accomplishments of his historical subjects, embellishing them if need be.

(C) A scientific historian should pay close attention to the social and literary aspects of a scientific biography and play down the actual science, because readers can turn to scientific reports to get that information.

(D) Ernest Everett Just was likely the most important black biologist, and in fact one of the most important biologists, of the 20th century.

(E) Biography is too limited a genre to allow a historian of science to do justice to a topic, but it is useful occasionally because most readers find biographies more accessible than other historical formats.

5.  According to the passage, why is Ernest Everett Just significant enough to warrant a biography?

(A) Just was one of the first professional black scientists in the United States.

(B) Just grew up in poverty but overcame this initial adversity to attend Howard University and then become a professional scientist.

(C) Just was a biologist whose work was known and respected internationally.

(D) Just's daily experiences illuminate the conditions characterized by both scientific research and racial relations during his lifetime.

(E) Just became a college professor and an embryologist at Marine Biological Laboratory.

6.  What does the author mean by the phrase “simplicity of form” (Line 38)?

(A) the simple language used by many biographical writers

(B) the easy-to-read page design used by most publishers of biographies

(C) a writing style that is easy for schoolchildren to read and understand

(D) the powerful social commentary that a heroic life story can contain

(E) the straightforward organization of a biography, which follows the course of the subject's life

Questions 7–13 refer to the following passage.


7.  Which one of the following best summarizes the main idea of the passage?

(A) A few minor risks are associated with the use of SLS and SLES, but consumers should feel safe in using products containing these substances because the FDA has approved them for use in personal care products.

(B) Manufacturers of shampoos and toothpastes include the artificial chemicals SLS and SLES in their products because they are cheap and effective surfactants, despite the known dangers associated with them.

(C) SLS and SLES are detergents that are commonly used in personal care products because they are effective and safe, despite unsubstantiated rumors to the contrary.

(D) Widespread rumors circulated on the Internet blame SLS and SLES for numerous ailments in humans, including hair loss, dry skin, liver and kidney disease, blindness in children, and cancer.

(E) It is entirely possible to use SLS and SLES in both personal care products such as shampoos and industrial products such as engine degreasers because, at lower concentrations, the substances are perfectly safe to use on human skin.

8.  According to the passage, what are some of the household products that commonly contain SLS or SLES?

(A) shampoo, mouthwash, sunscreen, and hair dye

(B) shampoo, toothpaste, bathroom cleaners, and engine degreasers

(C) toothpaste, engine degreasers, engine lubricants, and garage cleaners

(D) mouthwash, facial moisturizers, and baby wipes

(E) bathroom and kitchen cleaners, laundry detergents, and fabric softeners

9.  The author mentions the FDA in the last paragraph most likely to

(A) point out that the FDA has approved the use of SLS and SLES in personal care products

(B) suggest that the FDA has the best interests of consumers at heart

(C) imply that the FDA's opinion that SLS and SLES are safe for use in personal care products excuses manufacturers from testing their personal care products for safety

(D) protest the FDA's approval of the use of SLS and SLES in personal care products

(E) refute claims that SLS and SLES are dangerous

10.  According to the passage, what are some of the widely accepted risks of SLS exposure?

(A) cancer, blindness, cataracts, dry skin, and diarrhea

(B) burning eyes, burned skin after long exposure, liver disease, and kidney disease

(C) skin irritation, eye irritation, hair loss, and diarrhea if ingested in large quantities

(D) burning eyes, burned skin after long exposure, and diarrhea if ingested in large quantities

(E) diarrhea, skin irritation after extended exposure, eye irritation, cataracts, and bladder cancer

11.  Which one of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

(A) a list of known risks of exposure to SLS and SLES; a list of unsubstantiated risks of exposure to SLS and SLES; a conclusion stating that SLS and SLES are perfectly safe

(B) a description of several common surfactants and the way in which they work; several anecdotal accounts of injuries and illnesses allegedly caused by SLS and SLES; a call for the government to ban the use of SLS and SLES in consumer care products

(C) a description of the chemical composition of SLS and SLES; a list of evidence against the use of SLS and SLES in personal care products; a proposal to manufacturers suggesting that they use only naturally occurring substances in their products

(D) an overview of the many uses of SLS and SLES; an explanation of why manufacturers use these substances in both consumer care and household cleaning products; a criticism against people who spread rumors over the Internet; praise for the FDA

(E) a description of SLS and SLES and their uses; known risks of SLS and SLES; criticisms aimed at SLS and SLES by detractors on the Internet; evidence that SLS and SLES are safe and the rumors unfounded

12.  The primary purpose of the third paragraph is

(A) to criticize makers of personal cleansing products for including harsh chemicals in their shampoos, toothpastes, and other offerings

(B) to describe the way SLS and SLES work and explain why they are commonly used in various foaming products

(C) to warn readers of the dangers associated with exposure to SLS and SLES, which include cancer, skin irritation, blindness, and kidney and liver ailments

(D) to propose other naturally occurring substances that manufacturers could substitute for SLS and SLES in their products

(E) to explain why some people fear SLS and SLES and to list the diseases that Internet rumors have linked to the substances

13.  It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements?

(A) It is unreasonable for people to be afraid of substances that have been deemed safe by the FDA and several other major organizations, and that have a long history of safe use, simply on the basis of unsubstantiated rumors.

(B) Consumers can trust the FDA to make sure that all consumer products are safe because the FDA is funded by tax dollars and takes seriously its mission to ensure the health of American citizens.

(C) The Internet is not a very reliable source of information on health topics unless that information has been posted by government agencies or major advocacy groups.

(D) SLS and SLES are cheap and effective surfactants and emulsifiers, but they aren't especially safe to use in products intended for direct physical contact with human skin.

(E) If enough concerned consumers protest the inclusion of SLS and SLES in personal care products, they can persuade manufacturers to use all-natural ingredients, but there's no reason for them to do this because SLS and SLES are safe.

Questions 14–19 refer to the following two passages. The first is adapted from Forensic Psychology and Law, by Ronald Roesch, Patricia A. Zapf, and Stephen D. Hart (Wiley). The second is adapted from Forensic Psychology: Crime, Justice, Law, Interventions, 2nd Edition, edited by Graham Davies and Anthony Beech (Wiley).

Passage A


Passage B


14.  The author of Passage A cites research conducted to determine how all the following affect the accuracy of an eyewitness's testimony EXCEPT

(A) the eyewitness's race

(B) the eyewitness's gender

(C) the types of questions the eyewitness is asked

(D) the amount of time that has passed since the eyewitness experienced the event

(E) the eyewitness's age

15.  Which one of the following statements is most strongly supported by both passages?

(A) Eyewitness testimony is highly accurate considering the complexity of human memory.

(B) Eyewitness testimony is often flawed because it is influenced by a variety of factors.

(C) The human memory follows an arc pattern over one's lifetime, strengthening through adulthood and then weakening as one enters old age.

(D) Little if any evidence supports the fact that males provide more accurate eyewitness testimony than females.

(E) Determining a known error rate for eyewitness testimony involves a complex integration of many variables.

16.  Which one of the following claims about eyewitness testimony is NOT suggested by Passage A?

(A) How the lighting in a particular event affects the reliability of eyewitness identification is a variable that warrants a good amount of study.

(B) The accuracy of eyewitness identification can be negatively affected by the eyewitness's race.

(C) The many factors that can lead to mistaken eyewitness identification can be grouped into two main categories.

(D) Much research has been done to assess how the order of a lineup may affect eyewitness identification.

(E) Asking misleading questions is one of the variables that affect the accuracy of eyewitness testimony over which the judicial system has at least some measure of control.

17.  The passages have which of the following aims in common?

(A) to express the need for researchers to come up with a calculable error rate to determine whether eyewitness evidence may be admissible in court

(B) to define episodic memory and explain how it may come into play in judicial proceedings

(C) to identify the differences between system and estimator variables

(D) to determine how race, age, and gender can affect the accuracy of eyewitness testimony

(E) to understand how memory and human cognitive abilities are affected by a variety of different factors

18.  Which of the following statements most accurately characterizes a difference between the two passages?

(A) Passage A discusses how misleading questions can affect the accuracy of eyewitness testimony, whereas Passage B dismisses the importance of how a witness is questioned.

(B) Passage A emphasizes the importance of forensic research; Passage B is primarily concerned with the way that same research influences how system variables, such as controlling lineups, are manipulated by judicial proceedings.

(C) Passage A discusses the role that race plays in greater detail than does Passage B.

(D) Both passages concern improving eyewitness accuracy, but Passage A focuses on controlling variables and Passage B concentrates on understanding the science behind human recollection.

(E) Passage B focuses on how research can improve the reliability of eyewitness testimony; Passage A does not.

19.  Each of the following is supported by one or both of the passages EXCEPT:

(A) Human memory sometimes fails to recollect events exactly how they happened.

(B) The cognitive system is remarkable because it is able to match sensory stimuli with previous experience.

(C) Testimony based on a witness's memory ideally should provide confirmation of a culprit's guilt.

(D) The 1993 Daubert ruling involved a court argument surrounding the need for a known error rate in regards to eyewitness testimony.

(E) Lighting issues and the length of time someone witnessed an event are examples of system variables.

Questions 20–26 refer to the following passage.


20.  The passage is primarily concerned with discussing which one of the following?

(A) the use of public schools to disseminate political messages, as exemplified by German public schools in the 18th and 19th centuries

(B) the exploitation of the working class by German aristocracy in the 18th century and the use of public education to justify this practice

(C) the philosophical origins of public schools in 18th century Germany and the transformation in educational thinking in the 19th century

(D) the thinking of German educational theorists and their influence on modern educational practices

(E) the role of Frederick II's minister of Silesia and the German aristocracy in the creation of public schools in Germany

21.  The passage suggests which one of the following about the owners of textile mills in the 1700s?

(A) They wanted their child workers to have the benefit of an education, so they opened schools within their factories and required all young workers to attend classes.

(B) Because they could pay children less than adults, they preferred to hire young workers whenever they could.

(C) They were indifferent to the well-being and needs of their workers, caring only to maximize production and profits no matter what it cost their employees.

(D) They were all aristocrats who believed their authority was divinely ordained and that, as a result of this divinely ordained position, they had a duty to care for the less fortunate people in their communities by providing work and education for them.

(E) They were uniformly patriotic and supported the authority of their king without question, and they advocated for the opening of Spinnschulen because this would allow peasants to be taught the same patriotic ideals they held so dear.

22.  According to the passage, how did 19th-century schools differ from 18th-century schools?

(A) Eighteenth-century schools were intended to make textile mills run more efficiently by making workers become more skilled at their jobs; 19th-century schools were no longer attached to textile factories.

(B) Eighteenth-century schools were concerned primarily with teaching working-class children to accept their fate and love their ruler; 19th-century schools began to focus on developing the full human potential of students.

(C) Eighteenth-century schools were open only to children of the aristocracy whose parents could pay their tuition. By the 19th century, schools were open to all free of charge, but poorer students had to pay their way by working in spinning factories in the afternoons.

(D) Eighteenth-century schools were designed to instill patriotic ideals in the peasantry and make them docile and compliant; 19th-century schools instead tried to develop all children into free thinkers.

(E) Eighteenth-century schools were not appealing to parents, who often tried to keep their children out of school and as a result were punished by truant officers; 19th-century schools, on the other hand, were appealing to both parents and children because educational philosophers believed a more pleasant environment was more conducive to education.

23.  What does the author mean by the phrase “increasing levels of unrest” in Line 15?

(A) riots and other forms of violence against the owners of textile factories by peasants unhappy at their treatment

(B) political speeches and demonstrations by politicians trying to earn the working-class vote

(C) aggression from neighboring countries looking to invade Germany

(D) religious turmoil between Catholics and Protestants

(E) juvenile delinquency and vandalism by unemployed and uneducated young men

24.  According to the passage, what did German aristocrats think about the idea of creating public schools?

(A) They feared that educating the working classes would make them less docile and accepting of their position in life and more likely to rise up and overthrow the nobles.

(B) They disliked the idea of paying taxes to support public schools and resented the king and Schlabrendorff for forcing this expense on them.

(C) They appreciated Schlabrendorff's brilliance in concocting an idea that would both make the peasantry more compliant and simultaneously produce more workers for the spinning factories.

(D) They approved of disseminating religious education to the masses because this would make the citizenry more compliant and less likely to engage in workers’ rebellions.

(E) They liked the idea because it would make the peasantry more complacent and accepting of their fate, which would help keep the aristocracy safe in their prosperity.

25.  According to the passage, what was the purpose of using truant officers to keep children in school?

(A) to ensure that all children received the full education that was their right, even if their parents wished instead to keep them working at home

(B) to take away the authority of parents and replace it with state power over children and citizens

(C) to assist parents in making sure that their children attended school as required by catching and punishing children who failed to attend

(D) to indoctrinate children and their parents with political messages designed to help the aristocracy

(E) to assist the king and his administration in molding a compliant citizenry through a system of state-run schools

26.  Which one of the following best summarizes the views of 19th-century educational thinkers?

(A) The function of state-run schools is to instill obedience, patriotism, and docility in the working classes; wealthy children whose parents can afford to pay can have a more liberal education provided by private tutors.

(B) The most important subject for children to learn is religion, which is why schools should be run by the Church and should include all aspects of worship and theology.

(C) Most people cannot adequately educate their children on their own, but the state has an interest in an educated citizenry, so it is the government's job to provide public education and see that people send their children to school.

(D) People learn best in an environment that respects their individuality, affords them freedom, and incorporates a variety of aspects of learning, such as physical movement, manual skills, and independent exploration.

(E) A child's best and first teacher is his or her mother, so mothers should be encouraged to teach their children at home; this produces better results than public schools and is much cheaper for the state.


Section III

Logical Reasoning

Time: 35 minutes for 25 questions

Directions: Read the passage and choose the best answer. Some questions may have more than one answer that looks right. Select the one that answers the question most completely. Don't assume anything that isn't directly stated, and don't let your imagination run wild. All the information you need is in the arguments and the answer choices.

1.  Economist:On average, the more a person donates to a religious group, the less likely that person is to participate in religious activities, including weekly or daily religious services. Therefore, we can conclude that those who donate the largest amounts to their churches attend the fewest services.

Which one of the following statements, if true, most seriously weakens the economist's argument?

(A) Conservative Protestants tend to continue attending services even when they donate large amounts.

(B) Many religious people claim that they feel more comfortable skipping services if they give more money to their churches.

(C) The same phenomenon has been observed in all denominations of Christians and in Jewish congregations.

(D) One of the causes of the Protestant Reformation in the 1500s was the Church's practice of granting indulgences to parishioners who donated money.

(E) The bigger a check a parishioner writes, the more likely he is to skip services the following weekend.

2.  Geneticist: The odds of having a child born with Down syndrome increase dramatically when a woman reaches the age of 35. By the age of 49, a woman has a one in four chance of conceiving a child with such abnormalities. Yet the vast majority of Down syndrome children are born to mothers under the age of 35.

Which one of the following, if true, most helps to reconcile the geneticist's two claims?

(A) The number of women having babies in their forties has increased in the last decade.

(B) Down syndrome is one of the most common birth defects.

(C) Many mothers decide to abort fetuses that are diagnosed with chromosomal abnormalities in prenatal tests.

(D) New tests can now identify fetuses affected with Down syndrome in the first trimester.

(E) Most babies are born to mothers under the age of 35.

3.  Shoe company: Our shoes are masterpieces of podiatric design. We use wide toe boxes to give toes room to spread naturally. Our foot beds support the entire foot, toe, arch, and heel. Slightly raised heels and a curved sole alleviate fatigue and facilitate walking. The materials we use in soles are excellent shock absorbers. We guarantee that your feet will love our shoes or your money back.

The claim that “we guarantee that your feet will love our shoes or your money back” plays which one of the following roles?

(A) It infers from the information preceding it that advanced podiatric design is essential to comfortable shoes.

(B) It implies that if a consumer purchases these shoes and they hurt her feet, the company will refund her purchase price.

(C) It suggests that all customers who buy these shoes are satisfied with their purchases.

(D) It criticizes the design of most mass-produced shoes, which are much more likely to cause foot problems.

(E) It argues that only shoes designed by certified podiatrists can guarantee healthy and pain-free feet.

4.  The administration has issued new regulations restricting travel to Cuba and limiting the amount of time visitors can spend there. Only Cuban-Americans are allowed to visit Cuba. They can visit only once every three years for 14 days, they may bring only $300 in cash to the country, and they may not bring back to the United States any merchandise purchased in Cuba. These regulations should hasten the fall of Cuba's repressive dictatorship, which should benefit all Cuban people.

Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the argument?

(A) Many Cubans avoid financial hardship because they rely on cash and goods brought to them by relatives who previously could visit once a year and bring in a maximum of $3,000.

(B) United States citizens who are not Cuban-American will not be allowed to visit Cuba at all.

(C) Cuba's government is led by a communist dictator, who has been in control of the island nation since the 1950s.

(D) Critics of the law have accused the administration of pandering to the demands of the powerful Cuban-American lobby in Florida.

(E) The Treasury Department believes that Cuba's regime receives a great deal of financial support from infusions of cash brought into the country by Cuban-Americans.

5.  Airline representative: We have reduced the number of award seats available to customers wanting to exchange 25,000 frequent-flier miles. However, we have significantly increased the number of flights on which any seat can be exchanged for 50,000 miles, giving travelers much greater scheduling flexibility. We believe customers will appreciate this change.

The reasoning in the airline representative's argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument

(A) suggests that customers with more frequent-flier miles deserve more access to seats than those with fewer frequent-flier miles

(B) criticizes customers who use frequent-flier miles to purchase seats for their inflexibility

(C) neglects to mention that airlines dislike awarding frequent-flier seats because they cut into profit margins

(D) assumes without offering evidence that customers value scheduling flexibility enough to pay double the frequent-flier miles for it

(E) disingenuously encourages people to use their frequent-flier miles to upgrade to first-class instead of purchasing coach class tickets

6.  Sociologist:Women tend to marry up; that is, they marry men who are at least their equals in education and income. This trend is not as apparent among women with the most education and the highest incomes, who are more likely to marry men of equal status, but it is perceptible among women with less education and lower incomes. Thus it seems likely that many men, especially poverty-stricken ones, will never manage to find wives.

The conclusion drawn by the sociologist follows logically if which one of the following is assumed?

(A) Highly educated women are most likely to marry educated men.

(B) Wealthy men are more physically attractive to women than are poor men.

(C) Across all income levels, women have on average higher educational attainments than men.

(D) Highly educated men still make more money than their female counterparts.

(E) Low-income women are more interested in education than their male counterparts.

7.  Bullying bosses are a common fixture of the workplace. They usually abuse subordinates simply because they enjoy exerting power for its own sake. Subordinates who are abused by their bosses typically perform their jobs as usual and almost never lodge formal complaints, preferring to complain in sessions with co-workers during which they discuss their bosses’ misdeeds.

Which one of the following best illustrates this proposition?

(A) Boss Maureen blames subordinate Skylar for all her mistakes, informing clients that she would have gotten work done on time but for his incompetence. Skylar files a complaint with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission and receives a right-to-sue letter for national origin discrimination.

(B) Boss Frank makes subordinate David stay late every afternoon, making him do work that he could have done in the morning if he had known about it. David tolerates this for a few months and then accepts a job at a rival company.

(C) Boss Belinda makes fun of the way subordinate Casey dresses, telling her that no one will ever take her seriously with her budget wardrobe. Casey informs her company's human resources manager of Belinda's comments and is transferred to another department.

(D) Boss Bill requires that subordinate Paul bill a certain number of hours but often fails to provide Paul with enough work. Paul comes to the office every day and pretends to work without accomplishing very much, spending much of his time complaining about Bill to his secretary.

(E) Boss Stephanie constantly criticizes subordinate Kim's work, correcting it one way one day and then correcting it back to its original state the next. Kim meekly accepts the criticisms but spends every Thursday evening at a bar with co-workers making fun of Stephanie.

8.  To earn a graduate equivalency diploma, a student must pass tests on subjects taught in high schools, proving that he or she has mastered them to the degree assumed of a high school graduate. It makes sense for a student to drop out of high school and earn a GED. A GED takes much less time to earn than a high school diploma and provides evidence that the student has learned everything he or she would have learned in high school.

Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?

(A) Some GED-prep programs incorporate enrichment activities into their test preparation, such as taking students to art exhibits and theatrical performances.

(B) Most colleges and universities consider a GED equivalent to a high school degree for admission purposes.

(C) Many successful businesspeople dropped out of high school and earned a GED.

(D) Employers assume that high school graduates generally have a much higher level of mastery of academic subjects than those who earn GEDs.

(E) Many GED students are slightly older than high school students, and they often hold jobs in addition to studying to pass the GED tests.

9.  The legislature should ban over-the-counter sales to minors of cold medications containing dextromethorphan, commonly known as DXM. Teenagers have been taking overdoses of these medications to induce a cheap high and hallucinations, but high doses of this drug can cause comas or death. Emergency room visits involving this substance have increased recently, as teens research DXM on the Internet. A ban is the best way to protect our young people.

Which one of the following, if true, most strongly supports this argument?

(A) Effects of DXM overdoses include high fever, seizures, comas, and death.

(B) DXM is not an addictive substance and will not induce chemical dependency in regular users.

(C) The standard dose of DXM for treating colds is 15 milligrams; teenagers commonly take 100 milligram doses to induce hallucinations and a feeling of unreality.

(D) A ban on over-the-counter sales of cough medicines containing codeine reduced incidences of codeine overdoses by 50 percent in two years’ time.

(E) Between 2000 and 2003, the number of calls to poison control centers about overdoses of DXM more than doubled.

10.  Hurricanes start over the ocean and must remain over water to keep their powerful winds moving. They almost always form in the tropics in the late summer and early autumn, when the water is warmest. They lose strength when they move onto land and eventually dwindle and die away.

If these statements are true, which one of the following must also be true based upon them?

(A) A city on the coast is more vulnerable to being struck by a hurricane than an inland city.

(B) Hurricanes can never strike coastal areas in the northern part of the United States because the water there is too cold.

(C) Most hurricanes begin in the eastern Atlantic and travel westward toward the Americas.

(D) It would be impossible for a hurricane to do much damage more than a few miles from the coast.

(E) Hurricanes that form in the early fall tend to be stronger than hurricanes in the late summer.

11.  Parent:I'm not going to have my child vaccinated against common childhood diseases. I fear the side effects of the vaccines. In any case, because other children are vaccinated, I won't have to fear my child catching the diseases the vaccines are designed to prevent.

A reasoning flaw in the parent's argument is that the argument

(A) criticizes parents who do have their children vaccinated

(B) makes an emotional plea against forcing children to undergo injections

(C) attacks government leaders who have insisted on a national vaccination program

(D) implies that other parents are not as knowledgeable about the side effects of vaccines

(E) assumes that no other parents will take the same stance against vaccination

12.  The phrase “under God” in the Pledge of Allegiance is not unconstitutional because, throughout our nation's history, various presidents and political leaders have invoked God in inaugural addresses, Thanksgiving speeches, and other public statements of national unity. Therefore, requiring public school teachers to lead their students in the pledge every day does not force religious beliefs on anyone.

The argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it

(A) ignores evidence that many politicians do not invoke God in public addresses because they believe it would be an improper exercise of religion

(B) fails to acknowledge that the majority of U.S. citizens approve of including the phrase “under God” in the pledge

(C) equates freedom of expression by national leaders with proof that requiring students to mention God in the pledge is not an unjust imposition of religious beliefs

(D) praises teachers who lead their classes in the Pledge of Allegiance for performing an act of patriotism that deserves no reward

(E) assumes that all U.S. citizens believe in the same deity and wish to invoke that deity's protection of the nation and its people

13.  Barsad:Europeans work far fewer hours on average than Americans do. Full-time workers in Europe rarely work more than 35 hours a week and take off between four and six weeks every year. This more humane work pattern is directly tied to the higher income taxes imposed on Europeans; high taxes reduce the take-home profit of working long hours, which takes away any incentive workers may have to put in more time than necessary to achieve a comfortable standard of living.

Preston:Within Europe, no consistent correlation exists between higher income taxes and shorter working hours. In Ireland, for example, taxes have hardly risen at all in the last 30 years, but the country's workers have nevertheless decreased their average working hours by 25 percent.

This dialogue lends the most support to the claim that Barsad and Preston disagree with each other about which one of the following statements?

(A) Europeans value leisure much more than Americans do, as evidenced by their shorter workweeks and much more generous vacation policies.

(B) Europeans work shorter hours than Americans because higher income taxes remove any incentive they may feel to increase their take-home pay by working longer hours.

(C) Higher income taxes in the United States would inspire Americans to cut back on the hours that they work, which would benefit families and equalize wealth in the nation.

(D) Despite the fewer hours they spend at work, Europeans have a standard of living that is no more than 25 percent lower than that enjoyed by Americans.

(E) Some studies have found a correlation between higher taxes and shorter hours, but those studies also found that the taxes accounted for only one-third of the difference in hours between Americans and Europeans.

14.  History has shown that people will reduce their consumption of fuel only if they have a financial incentive to do so. For example, in the energy crisis of the 1970s, people drastically lowered their consumption of gasoline. When California suffered its own statewide energy crisis in 2001, the state promised a 20 percent discount on power bills to consumers who reduced their power consumption, and a majority of citizens managed this feat. The government should therefore implement financial incentives to reduce energy consumption, such as taxes on gasoline or rewards for reduced consumption.

Which one of the following is an assumption required by the argument?

(A) The government should not interfere with energy policies and should instead let the market guide consumption.

(B) In some cases, citizens have reduced their power consumption even without incentives.

(C) Policies created during the energy crisis of the 1970s should serve as a model of policies that could address the current energy crisis.

(D) Getting citizens to use less energy than they currently do is desirable.

(E) The federal government should follow California's lead in setting energy policy.

15.  Requiring public school students to adhere to dress codes or wear uniforms has many benefits. It cuts down on disciplinary problems, reduces theft, and makes it difficult for wealthy students to make fun of poorer ones because of their clothes. Dress codes do reduce individual expression, but a public school doesn't need to be a training ground for nonconformists. A dress code can work, though, only if all students are required to follow it.

Which one of the following is most strongly supported by this argument?

(A) The author believes that public schools should be a forum for individual expression.

(B) The author has no objection to enforcing conformity on public school students.

(C) The author thinks that the only way to implement a dress code is to assign students an official uniform.

(D) Most parents of public school students like dress codes because dressing their children for school is easier and cheaper.

(E) Dress codes reduce theft and other disciplinary problems without necessarily harming individual expression.

16.  I bought a pair of glasses from an optometrist. One of the lenses regularly pops out of the frame. Therefore, this optometrist does not know how to make a good pair of glasses.

The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument

(A) does not allow the optometrist a chance to defend himself

(B) does not consider the possibility that other optometrists also make defective frames

(C) criticizes the optometrist's use of a particular technique when making glasses

(D) jumps to the conclusion that the defect in the glasses must be due to the optometrist's lack of skill

(E) accuses the optometrist of deliberately sabotaging the glasses

17.  If Person A promises to do something on the condition that Person B perform a specific action, and Person B performs that action, then Person A is obligated to do whatever he or she promised to do.

Which one of the following most closely conforms to this principle?

(A) A man promises a woman that he will give her an engagement ring as soon as he returns from his military deployment. When he returns, he gives her an engagement ring.

(B) A boss promises his workers a party if they reach a sales goal by the end of the month. They reach their sales goal but the boss decides the party would be too expensive and buys pizza instead.

(C) A seal trainer gives her seals fish as a reward whenever they perform their tricks correctly. The seals perform perfectly, and the trainer gives them fish.

(D) A mother threatens to take away her son's toy airplane if he throws a tantrum that afternoon. He throws a tantrum that afternoon, so she takes his toy airplane.

(E) A professor promises a student that he will write a good recommendation for her if she does well in the class. She does poorly, so he writes her a bad recommendation.

18.  Zoologist:I have discovered a gene that controls whether an individual is monogamous. I took a gene from the monogamous prairie vole and implanted it into its more promiscuous relative, the meadow vole. Thereafter, the meadow voles with the new gene became monogamous.

Which one of the following, if true, would provide the most support for the zoologist's argument?

(A) Studies on humans and other mammals have shown that receptors for the hormone vasopressin play a role in autism, drug addiction, and the formation of romantic attachments.

(B) Prairie voles typically form lifelong partnerships, which scientists have linked to an increased number of receptors for the hormone vasopressin.

(C) Meadow voles live in a harsher environment than prairie voles and cannot afford to pass up opportunities to mate as often as possible.

(D) The zoologist used a harmless virus to capture the gene and transfer it into the meadow voles.

(E) The meadow voles that had the prairie vole gene implanted in them were released into and observed in the same habitat in which they had previously lived.

19.  An art museum has bought a bronze statue that it believes is a sculpture of the god Apollo by the famous ancient Greek sculptor Praxiteles. Only a few sculptures known to be by Praxiteles still exist today, and many sculptures once thought to be by him were actually copies of his originals made by ancient Romans. Dating ancient sculpture accurately is difficult for scholars, but they have found several features of this statue that make it likely that it dates from the era of Praxiteles, and it certainly conforms to the sculptor's style.

Which one of the following is most strongly supported by this information?

(A) The art museum cannot be confident that this statue was made by Praxiteles.

(B) In some cases, museums have purchased sculptures that they believed were ancient works and later discovered that they were made by modern forgers.

(C) After extensive research and investigation, scholars will be able to state conclusively whether this statue was made by Praxiteles.

(D) The statue is certainly an original Greek bronze statue dating from the late fourth century BC or the early third century BC.

(E) Praxiteles's style is so distinctive that it is readily apparent when a statue is one of his originals as opposed to a copy.

20.  Psychologist A: Psychologists should not refer to the people who participate in their experiments as subjects, which is an extremely impersonal term that could apply as well to rodents. They should instead call them participants, which implies willing consent, except in the case of infants, who of course cannot consent and should be called individuals. This concept has been included in the new guidelines for psychologists who conduct research.

Psychologist B: I wish the psychologists’ governing body had never decided to change the guidelines. The term subject worked for years, and my colleagues and I never felt that the word denied the humanity of the people we studied. We now never know what to call the people we use in our studies, and we fear criticism if we inadvertently use the wrong term.

Psychologist A and Psychologist B disagree about whether

(A) those who take part in psychological experiments prefer to be called participants

(B) the psychologists’ governing body has the authority to change guidelines on terminology used by researchers

(C) the new terminology guidelines were a valuable and necessary update to the field of psychological research

(D) some older children are capable of consenting to participation in research studies

(E) the word subject implies a passive participant, and the word participant implies an active one who has given her consent

21.  Gynecologist: Scottish researchers have developed a test that allows them to predict at what age a woman will experience menopause. The scientists use a model that compares a woman's ovaries to “average” ovaries to see whether her ovaries are aging faster or more slowly than average. They have discovered that the size of ovaries is directly related to the number of eggs they contain, which in turn is directly related to fertility. This discovery will significantly influence women's decisions on when to have children.

The gynecologist's conclusion follows logically if which one of the following is assumed?

(A) Women with smaller ovaries tend to have less success with assisted reproduction techniques, such as in vitro fertilization.

(B) Most women experience menopause around the age of 50, but their fertility starts to decline at the age of 37.

(C) Women who want to have children increasingly seek to delay doing so for many varied reasons.

(D) The test cannot tell women how likely they are to conceive in the years just prior to menopause.

(E) Every woman is born with several million eggs in her ovaries, which formed while she was a fetus; the number of eggs dwindles over her lifetime, until at menopause she has 1,000 or fewer.

22.  School board member: A school in a wealthy suburb and a school in a poverty-stricken part of the inner city received exactly the same funding and got completely different results. The school in the suburb sent all its graduates to college, but the school in the city sent only 10 percent to college and suffered a 25 percent dropout rate before graduation. Clearly, the inner-city school is wasting its money, whereas the suburban school puts its money to good use.

The reasoning in the school board member's argument is flawed because the argument

(A) mistakenly finds a correlation between levels of funding and graduation rates

(B) assumes that most of the inner-city school students are unprepared for college

(C) fails to consider that funding levels are not the only factors influencing school performance

(D) unfairly criticizes the administrators of the inner-city school for their students’ failures

(E) jumps to the conclusion that students in the suburbs are more intelligent and harder working than students in the inner city

23.  Motorcyclists are told always to wear helmets when they ride their motorcycles. But helmets only protect riders when they have wrecks, and wrecks occur only once out of every 1,000 rides. Therefore, a motorcyclist would be perfectly safe if he wore his helmet only once out of every 1,000 rides.

Which one of the following employs a flawed argumentative strategy that is most closely parallel to the flawed argumentative strategy in this statement?

(A) My European client calls once a week, always in the evening, after everyone has left the office. I will be sure to get his messages if I turn on my telephone's answering machine once a week.

(B) This sunscreen allows me to stay in the sun 15 times longer than I could without sunscreen. If I apply two coats of it, it will allow me to stay in the sun 30 times longer.

(C) The odds are 1,000 to 1 against winning the big jackpot on this slot machine. If I play the slot machine 1,000 times, I am sure to win the big jackpot.

(D) Seat belts protect passengers in automobile accidents, but accidents only occur in one out of every 2,000 car trips. Because drivers are in the car the most, they should wear their seat belts most often.

(E) Top law schools accept one out of every 20 applicants. Therefore, someone who wants to get into a top law school should apply to 20 of them.

24.  During the 20th century, the introduction of widespread indoor plumbing and electricity and the invention of machines such as washing machines and dishwashers made it much easier for women to accomplish their daily housekeeping chores. Ironically, by the 1950s, women actually spent more time doing housework than they had 40 years earlier, before these innovations.

Which one of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent discrepancy in this passage?

(A) By the 1950s, people expected cleaner clothes and surroundings and more elaborate meals than they had earlier in the 20th century.

(B) Women who had gone to work outside the home in the 1940s subsequently found housekeeping a poor substitute, which led directly to the feminist movement of the 1960s.

(C) The 1950s were the height of the postwar baby boom, and women had to spend a great deal of their time caring for their children.

(D) Husbands of the 1950s were highly unlikely to help their wives with housework or cooking, though they did typically care for the car and the yard.

(E) In the 1950s, many young families moved to newly built suburbs, where wives often found themselves isolated during the day while their husbands went to work and their children went to school.

25.  European Union: To reduce consumer confusion, we have issued new rules regulating the use of regional names on food products. Under these rules, actual geographical origin will take precedence over traditional usage, so a product such as Parmesan cheese can no longer be called that unless it was produced in Parma, Italy.

American Food Manufacturers Union: This ban is outrageous and unfair to food manufacturers and distributors. Certain regional names have been in common use for centuries and have taken on a generic meaning; all consumers know that the term Parmesan refers to a type of cheese, not to the geographical region in which the cheese was manufactured.

Based on this conversation, the European Union and the American Food Manufacturers Union disagree on which one of the following points?

(A) whether a product originating in one region can be produced with the same level of quality when made in another region

(B) whether the EU should allow American food products bearing names of European regions to be imported into Europe

(C) whether Americans of European ancestry can still appreciate the nuances in taste that result from manufacturing food products in specific regions famous for them

(D) whether consumers think that geographical food names are generic

(E) whether it is possible to have an intellectual property right in a geographical name


Section IV

Analytical Reasoning

Time: 35 minutes for 25 questions

Directions: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

Questions 1–5 refer to the following scenario.

It is 1848, and a number of women and men are attending the first United States convention in support of women's rights in Seneca Falls, New York. Six prominent feminists and abolitionists will speak at this meeting: Susan B. Anthony, Frederick Douglass, Jane Hunt, Lucretia Mott, Elizabeth Cady Stanton, and Martha Wright. Each of them will speak once and only once, and only one person speaks at a time. One person speaks per hour; the first speaker begins at 2 and the last one at 7. The following rules determine the order in which they speak:

·        Neither Frederick Douglass nor Lucretia Mott may speak at 6.

·        Elizabeth Cady Stanton speaks before either Frederick Douglass or Lucretia Mott but not before both.

·        If Jane Hunt speaks at 2, then Susan B. Anthony must speak after Martha Wright.

·        If Elizabeth Cady Stanton speaks at 4, then Martha Wright speaks at 7.

1.  Which one of the following could be an accurate order of speakers?

(A) Frederick Douglass, Jane Hunt, Elizabeth Cady Stanton, Lucretia Mott, Martha Wright, Susan B. Anthony

(B) Frederick Douglass, Elizabeth Cady Stanton, Susan B. Anthony, Martha Wright, Lucretia Mott, Jane Hunt

(C) Jane Hunt, Lucretia Mott, Susan B. Anthony, Elizabeth Cady Stanton, Martha Wright, Frederick Douglass

(D) Jane Hunt, Martha Wright, Frederick Douglass, Elizabeth Cady Stanton, Susan B. Anthony, Lucretia Mott

(E) Martha Wright, Elizabeth Cady Stanton, Jane Hunt, Frederick Douglass, Susan B. Anthony, Lucretia Mott

2.  If Jane Hunt speaks at 2, then which one of the following must be false?

(A) Susan B. Anthony speaks at 5.

(B) Frederick Douglass speaks at 3.

(C) Lucretia Mott speaks at 3.

(D) Martha Wright speaks at 4.

(E) Martha Wright speaks at 5.

3.  If Martha Wright speaks at 7, then which one of the following must be true?

(A) Jane Hunt speaks at 4.

(B) Elizabeth Cady Stanton speaks at 4.

(C) Lucretia Mott speaks at 5.

(D) At least one person speaks before Jane Hunt speaks.

(E) At least two people speak before Frederick Douglass speaks.

4.  All of the following speakers can speak at 2 EXCEPT:

(A) Susan B. Anthony

(B) Frederick Douglass

(C) Lucretia Mott

(D) Elizabeth Cady Stanton

(E) Martha Wright

5.  Which one of the following could be an accurate partial schedule of speakers?

(A) Susan B. Anthony at 3; Elizabeth Cady Stanton at 6

(B) Jane Hunt at 2; Elizabeth Cady Stanton at 3

(C) Jane Hunt at 2; Martha Wright at 7

(D) Martha Wright at 3; Elizabeth Cady Stanton at 4

(E) Elizabeth Cady Stanton at 5; Susan B. Anthony at 7

Questions 6–12 refer to the following scenario.

A ballroom dance club has seven members: four women — Madeleine, Natasha, Olivia, and Phoebe — and three men — Antonio, Bertrand, and Christophe. They have entered a ballroom competition that has five events performed in this order: foxtrot, paso doble, rumba, tango, and waltz. Each member of the club competes in exactly one event. They compete either in pairs of one man and one woman or as solo performers. The following rules determine who dances with whom and in which event:

·        Antonio competes as a solo performer.

·        Natasha competes as part of a pair.

·        Olivia competes in the rumba.

·        Bertrand cannot compete in an event immediately before or immediately after the event in which Christophe competes.

6.  If Phoebe is the only member who competes in the foxtrot, and Bertrand competes in the rumba, then which one of the following must be true?

(A) Antonio competes in the paso doble.

(B) Antonio competes in the waltz.

(C) Madeleine competes in the paso doble.

(D) Natasha competes in the tango.

(E) Natasha competes in the waltz.

7.  If Antonio chooses his event first, what is the maximum number of the remaining events from which Natasha can choose her own event?

(A) one

(B) two

(C) three

(D) four

(E) five

8.  If solo women compete in the foxtrot and the paso doble, then which of the following members must compete in the tango?

(A) Antonio

(B) Madeleine

(C) Natasha

(D) Natasha and Christophe

(E) Phoebe and Bertrand

9.  Which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the members who CANNOT dance solo?

(A) Bertrand, Natasha, and Phoebe

(B) Christophe, Bertrand, and Natasha

(C) Madeleine and Natasha

(D) Madeleine, Natasha, and Phoebe

(E) Natasha and Olivia

10.  Which of the following is a complete and accurate list of the women who could compete solo?

(A) Madeleine

(B) Phoebe

(C) Madeleine and Olivia

(D) Madeleine and Phoebe

(E) Madeleine, Olivia, and Phoebe

11.  If the four women compete in four consecutive events, and Natasha competes in the waltz, then which of the following is a complete and accurate list of the events in which members must compete as solo performers?

(A) foxtrot and paso doble

(B) foxtrot and tango

(C) paso doble

(D) foxtrot, paso doble, rumba, and tango

(E) tango

12.  If the three men compete in the first three events, then which one of the following must be true?

(A) Bertrand competes in the foxtrot.

(B) Bertrand and Madeleine compete in the same event.

(C) Bertrand and Natasha compete in the same event.

(D) Christophe competes in the rumba.

(E) Natasha competes in the foxtrot.

Questions 13–18 refer to the following scenario.

Seven famous chefs — Andrea, Berthe, Emilio, Jacques, Kimiko, Marthe, and Nigel — have volunteered their services for a presidential dinner. It consists of five courses, served in the following order: hors d'oeuvres, consommé, entrée, salade, and dessert. The dinner begins at 7 and ends at 10. One or two courses are served each hour, at 7, 8, and 9. The chefs refuse to work with one another, so each course is prepared by exactly one chef. No chef can prepare more than one course per hour. The following chefs have offered to prepare the following courses:

·        Hors d'oeuvres: Berthe and Marthe

·        Consommé: Andrea and Kimiko

·        Entrée: Andrea and Nigel

·        Salade: Berthe, Emilio, and Jacques

·        Dessert: Emilio, Kimiko, and Marthe

13.  What is the minimum number of chefs who could prepare the entire meal?

(A) two

(B) three

(C) four

(D) five

(E) six

14.  If the salade is served at 9, which one of the following could be a complete list of chefs who prepare a course served at 8?

(A) Andrea and Kimiko

(B) Berthe

(C) Emilio and Nigel

(D) Kimiko

(E) Marthe

15.  Which one of the following CANNOT be a complete and accurate list of the chefs who prepare the meal?

(A) Andrea, Berthe, Jacques, and Kimiko

(B) Andrea, Berthe, Kimiko, and Marthe

(C) Andrea, Emilio, Marthe, and Nigel

(D) Andrea, Jacques, Kimiko, and Marthe

(E) Berthe, Emilio, Jacques, and Marthe

16.  Which one of the following pairs of chefs could each prepare two courses served during the same two time slots?

(A) Andrea and Berthe

(B) Andrea and Kimiko

(C) Andrea and Marthe

(D) Berthe and Emilio

(E) Kimiko and Nigel

17.  Which one of the following pairs of chefs could each prepare a course served at 7 and a course served at 9?

(A) Andrea and Kimiko

(B) Andrea and Marthe

(C) Berthe and Kimiko

(D) Berthe and Marthe

(E) Emilio and Marthe

18.  Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the chefs who prepare the meal?

(A) Andrea, Berthe, Emilio, and Nigel

(B) Andrea, Emilio, Jacques, Kimiko, and Nigel

(C) Berthe, Emilio, Kimiko, and Marthe

(D) Berthe, Emilio, Marthe, and Nigel

(E) Emilio, Jacques, Kimiko, and Marthe

Questions 19–25 refer to the following scenario.

On a Friday afternoon, an English literature student rents from the local library five film versions of literary classics — Emma, Great Expectations, Ivanhoe, Middlemarch, and Wuthering Heights — to help him prepare for an exam the following Friday morning. Three of the films are on disc and two are on videotape. The student can watch no more than one film per evening, and Thursday is the last night he can watch a film. The student must schedule his film viewing under the following conditions:

·        Emma is on videotape. Wuthering Heights is on disc.

·        The student must watch Wuthering Heights before he watches Emma.

·        The student must watch Middlemarch and Ivanhoe after he watches Great Expectations.

·        The student must watch Emma on Monday.

·        The student cannot watch any two videotapes on consecutive days or any two discs on consecutive days.

·        The student must watch a film on disc on Saturday.

19.  Which one of the following could be an accurate schedule of the student's viewing of the films?

(A) Friday:Great Expectations; Saturday: Wuthering Heights; Sunday: Emma; Tuesday: Middlemarch; Wednesday: Ivanhoe

(B) Friday:Great Expectations; Saturday: Wuthering Heights; Monday: Emma; Tuesday: Middlemarch; Wednesday: Ivanhoe

(C) Friday: Great Expectations; Saturday: Wuthering Heights; Monday: Emma; Tuesday: Middlemarch; Thursday: Ivanhoe

(D) Friday: Wuthering Heights; Sunday: Great Expectations; Monday: Emma; Tuesday: Ivanhoe; Wednesday: Middlemarch

(E) Saturday: Wuthering Heights; Monday: Emma; Tuesday: Middlemarch; Wednesday: Great Expectations; Thursday: Ivanhoe

20.  If the student watches Great Expectations before he watches Emma, then which one of the following statements CANNOT be true?

(A) Great Expectations is on disc.

(B) Ivanhoe is on disc.

(C) Middlemarch is on disc.

(D) The student does not watch a film on Sunday.

(E) The student does not watch a film on Wednesday.

21.  If Middlemarch is on videotape, then which one of the following statements could be true?

(A) Ivanhoe is on videotape.

(B) The student watches Emma exactly three days before watching Middlemarch.

(C) The student watches Great Expectations exactly one day before watching Middlemarch.

(D) The student watches Ivanhoe on Wednesday.

(E) The student watches Middlemarch on Thursday.

22.  Which one of the following statements must be false?

(A) The student watches films on both Friday and Monday.

(B) The student watches films on both Monday and Wednesday.

(C) The student does not watch a film on either Friday or Sunday.

(D) The student does not watch a film on either Sunday or Wednesday.

(E) The student does not watch a film on either Tuesday or Thursday.

23.  If the student watches Great Expectations after he watches Wuthering Heights, then which one of the following statements must be false?

(A) The student does not watch a film on Friday.

(B) The student watches Ivanhoe before he watches Middlemarch.

(C) The student watches Great Expectations before he watches Emma.

(D) Great Expectations is on disc.

(E) Ivanhoe is on disc.

24.  If the student does not watch a film on Wednesday, then which one of the following statements must be true?

(A) The student watches Great Expectations on Friday.

(B) The student watches Great Expectations on Tuesday.

(C) The student watches Ivanhoe on Tuesday.

(D) The student watches Ivanhoe on Thursday.

(E) The student watches Middlemarch on Tuesday.

25.  If the student watches Ivanhoe before he watches Middlemarch, then how many different ways could he schedule his list of films to view them all during the week?

(A) one

(B) two

(C) three

(D) four

(E) five


Writing Sample

A third-year law student has just received two job offers, one from a small boutique firm and the other from a large firm. Within the time limit of 35 minutes, Write an essay in favor of choosing one law firm over the other based on the following considerations:

·        The student wants to work for a firm that will allow him to explore many different areas of practice.

·        The student wants to work for a firm that will give him early responsibility and client contact and possibly advance him rapidly.

The small boutique firm limits its practice to estate planning, tax law, and bankruptcy work. Because the firm has only four attorneys, the student would immediately receive his own clients and his own files. The hiring partner has promised him that the firm will help the student gain proficiency, and if he learns quickly and gets along with his co-workers, he could become a partner in three or four years.

The large firm has teams who handle a wide variety of practice areas, including insurance defense, corporate, employment law, workers’ compensation, construction litigation, real estate, and healthcare. The firm typically rotates its new associates through all these areas, allowing them to spend six months to a year working with a particular team before moving to another. By the fifth year, most associates have become permanent members of a team; this prepares them for partnership, which is never offered before an associate has worked for the firm for at least seven years.