LSAT For Dummies, 2nd Edition (2014)

Part VI. The Real Deal: Full-Length Practice LSATs

Chapter 19. Even More “Fun”: LSAT Practice Exam 3

The best way to prepare for the LSAT is with practice, so here's another opportunity to sharpen your skills on a full-length exam.

You'll get the most benefit from this exercise if you try to duplicate the testing environment of the real thing. So before you begin, keep these test-taking tips in mind:

1.     Find a quiet place to work, where nothing can distract or interrupt you.

2.     Use the answer grid provided and mark your answers with a No. 2 pencil.

3.     Set your watch or alarm clock for 35-minute intervals.

4.     Don't go to the next section until the time allotted for the current section is up.

5.     If you finish early, check your work for that section only.

6.     Don't take a break during any one section.

7.     Give yourself exactly one 10-minute break between sections III and IV.

When you're through, you can do a swift check of your success by consulting the answer key at the end of Chapter 20. After you calculate the number of questions you answered correctly in all sections, be sure to read the rest of that chapter to benefit from thorough explanations of how to approach each question on this exam.

tip.eps Although this test is a lot like the real thing, it isn't a substitute for exposure to real LSAT questions. Ordering a few LSAT PrepTests from allows you to apply what you've learned from reading this book to an actual LSAT.

Section I

Logical Reasoning

Time: 35 minutes for 25 questions

Directions: Read the passage and choose the best answer. Some questions may have more than one answer that looks right. Select the one that answers the question most completely. Don't assume anything that isn't directly stated, and don't let your imagination run wild; all the information you need is in the arguments and the answer choices.

1. The ivory-billed woodpecker has been considered extinct for the past several decades. Recently, researchers claim to have found a pair of ivory-billed woodpeckers in Arkansas. Their best evidence is a video that shows a large woodpecker flying away from the camera. The bird has the characteristic large white patches on the trailing edge of the wings. This is one of the factors that distinguishes ivory-billeds from the closely related pileated woodpecker. However, skeptics of the discovery argue that some abnormal pileateds can have extra white on the wing and that the bird in the video is most likely an abnormal pileated. They conclude that the ivory-billed has not been found and is still extinct.

Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the skeptics’ reasoning that the ivory-billed woodpecker is still extinct?

(A) Before this discovery, the last reported ivory-billed woodpeckers were seen in Louisiana.

(B) The first person to discover the ivory-billed woodpeckers was not a specialist, but professional ornithologists were soon brought in to confirm the identification.

(C) In the same area where the video was shot, researchers also heard the distinctive double-tap used by ivory-billed woodpeckers.

(D) Of the five key field marks that identify ivory-billed woodpeckers, only the extra white on the wings has been seen, and this is also the only feature that occurs on abnormal pileated woodpeckers.

(E) The bird in the video is clearly seen using the shallow wing beats of the ivory-billed woodpecker rather than the deeper wing beats of the abnormal pileated woodpecker.

2. A cosmetics company did a study of hair colors involving 100 women, all of whom dyed their hair with the same product. Half of them then washed their hair with special shampoo made for color-treated hair, and half of them washed their hair with ordinary shampoo. After two months, there was no difference in color fading between the two groups. Therefore, shampoo for color-treated hair is valueless.

Which one of the following statements, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?

(A) Most shampoos contain the same basic ingredients, such as sodium lauryl sulfate or sodium laureth sulfate.

(B) Most hair experts recommend touching up hair color every four to six weeks.

(C) Both groups had equal numbers of women in their 30s, 40s, and 50s, with comparable natural hair colors.

(D) The women who had used shampoo for color-treated hair had softer and shinier hair than the women who used ordinary shampoo.

(E) Hair color technology has improved tremendously in the last ten years, making it possible for all women to successfully color their hair at home.

3. Snakes exist on every continent except for Antarctica, which is inhospitable to all cold-blooded animals. The continent of Australia is home to many of the deadliest snakes in the world. However, the nearby island nation of New Zealand has no snakes at all. Scientists estimate that snakes originated about 100 million years ago when the continents were joined and the snakes stayed on the main land masses of the continents when they split apart. Thus snakes are absent from New Zealand because they are unable to swim and therefore could not make the journey.

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen this argument?

(A) Snakes are found on many other islands of the Pacific Ocean.

(B) Snakes are found in South America at latitudes farther south than New Zealand.

(C) Islands like Hawaii and New Zealand are very aggressive about preventing an accidental introduction of snakes.

(D) Sea snakes can swim and are present in the warmer oceans of the world.

(E) Snakes are also absent from other major islands, such as Hawaii, Ireland, and Greenland.

4. Dermatologist: Many people believe that they can prevent acne by using clay masks to draw impurities from pores and applying toner, which they think will close pores and prevent dirt from getting into them. If this were true, then acne would be very easy to treat with topical measures. In fact, acne blemishes develop within the skin itself and are affected by internal factors such as hormones and sebum. Therefore, using external measures such as masks and toners is useless.

The dermatologist's conclusion follows logically if which one of the following is assumed?

(A) Clay masks can dry out the skin.

(B) Some people like the sensation of toners on their skin.

(C) Dirt on the skin does not cause acne.

(D) Doctors have successfully treated acne with oral antibiotics.

(E) Most dermatologists recommend that patients clean their faces with gentle soap instead of harsh cleansers.

5. American citizens believe that they live in a democracy. In presidential elections, though, citizens do not get to vote for president. They can only choose electors who cast votes for president on behalf of entire states. Therefore, Americans do not actually live in a democracy.

Which one of the following exhibits a pattern of reasoning most similar to the one in the argument presented here?

(A) Most colleges have student government. All students are allowed to vote in student government elections. In fact, though, very few students vote or take any interest in student government affairs. Therefore, student government serves no useful purpose.

(B) All cities have local law enforcement programs. Usually, the police handle crime in the city, the sheriff's department handles county matters, and the state police handle matters that affect the entire state. Therefore, most cities have too much duplication of law enforcement jobs.

(C) The United States is said to have a free market economy. In fact, though, the U.S. economy is heavily regulated by the government, which gives many advantages to large businesses and punishes small companies and the self-employed. Therefore, the United States does not really have a free market economy.

(D) Most teachers believe that education courses are valuable. Many colleges and universities, on the other hand, look down on education degrees. Therefore, future teachers should not major in education.

(E) Most health insurers claim to offer their customers a variety of choices in health care. Doctors, however, do not post a menu of prices for customers to peruse before accepting treatment, and patients in hospitals do not get to choose the doctors who treat them. Therefore, health insurers are dishonest.

6. People usually meet expectations. Thus, if Person A informs Person B that he or she is expected to perform a particular duty and Person B accepts that duty, generally, Person B will perform the duty as expected.

Which one of the following best illustrates this proposition?

(A) A teacher informs a girl that she is responsible for feeding the class hamster every morning, and the girl agrees to do this. After this, the girl feeds the hamster every morning without the teacher telling her to.

(B) A partner asks an associate to write a memo on a legal issue. Because the associate is inexperienced, the partner supervises his work closely and helps him write several drafts of the memo.

(C) Country A has agreed to be Country B's military ally. Country A then elects a new president who disagrees with Country B's policies, and when Country B goes to war, Country A refuses to help.

(D) A coach teaches his players a particular strategy. The first time they use it in a game, they win. Thereafter, they go on to win the league championship.

(E) A psychologist tells a patient that behavior modification will help her quit smoking. The patient follows the program designed by the psychologist and quits smoking successfully.

7. Since the late 19th century, German schools have used a series of aptitude tests to shunt students into various tracks, some leading to the university, some to two-year clerical colleges, and some straight to technical jobs. The German educational system is currently plagued with discipline problems and underperforming students. Therefore, aptitude tests are valueless for sorting students.

All of the following, if true, weaken this argument EXCEPT:

(A) Disciplinary and other problems are most profound at technical schools with large immigrant populations, where students feel that society will not give them opportunities for self-improvement.

(B) Schools that attempt to teach the same subjects to students of all abilities are the most likely to suffer from discipline problems and failure because the work is too easy for bright students and too hard for slower ones.

(C) Sorting students by ability allows schools to gear curricula to individual needs, which results in better overall results.

(D) Until the early 1990s, the German school system was one of the best in the world, with excellent test results and virtually no disciplinary problems.

(E) Students who graduate from German technical schools are usually prepared to perform highly skilled jobs that pay them well.

8. All worker bees are female and have no sense of themselves as individuals. They instead live to further the welfare of the queen and her hive as a whole, helping her to lay eggs and raising her offspring. This means that workers spend their lives helping the queen to pass on her genetic traits and fail to pass on their own genes to offspring.

Which one of the following statements, if true, most seriously weakens this argument?

(A) All the bees in a hive are related to one another; the workers are all sisters and the queen is their mother. There is no need for workers to pass on their own genes because they are furthering their mother's line.

(B) When a hive loses its queen, some workers develop the ability to lay eggs; these unfertilized eggs can hatch only into male drones.

(C) A bee colony has only one queen at a time. When a new queen hatches in a hive, she immediately seeks out all other queens and tries to kill them or drive them out.

(D) If a beekeeper can catch the queen from a swarm, he can install her in a beehive, and the entire swarm of worker bees will immediately move into the hive with her.

(E) Queen bees mate once in their lives and store sperm from this mating to fertilize all their worker eggs. Male drones hatch from unfertilized eggs.

9. Some scholars of mythology claim that myths exist to explain natural phenomena; for example, the myth of Zeus's casting lightning bolts from heaven helped the ancient Greeks explain an otherwise unexplainable event. Other scholars argue that myths are a way in which people explore psychological phenomena, such as a son's feelings toward his mother. If these various scholars are correct, then all myths can be interpreted both as explanations of natural events and explorations of psychology.

This argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it

(A) draws a conclusion about myths that has already been discounted by experts in the field

(B) takes for granted that the myths of ancient people are relevant today

(C) imposes a modern, western sensibility on the myths of pre-modern people from a variety of cultures

(D) criticizes scholars who insist that one or the other interpretation of myths must be correct

(E) assumes that what is true of myths in general must also be true of each individual myth

10. Identifying the sex of parrotfish can be difficult. Juveniles of both sexes look alike. On the other hand, sexually mature males are large and brightly colored, with brilliantly colored scales that resemble those of colorful tropical parrots, whereas mature females are smaller than males and have more subdued coloration. In some species, males pass through an intermediate growth phase in which they continue to look identical to females before maturing into their full adult size and coloration.

If the statements in this argument are true, which one of the following would also have to be true?

(A) The sex of a non-juvenile parrotfish lacking brightly colored scales cannot always be easily determined.

(B) All male parrotfish are large and brightly colored.

(C) Female parrotfish use the bright colors of male parrotfish to judge which males are good mating prospects.

(D) Smaller size and subdued coloring help female parrotfish escape predators, to which mature male parrotfish are especially vulnerable.

(E) In all species of parrotfish, all males spend a part of their lives looking exactly like adult females.

11. Schools today have decreased funding and time for art, music, and drama classes, citing lack of money and a need to spend more time on academic subjects. This is tragic. Because of these decisions, the next generation of citizens will be a mass of automatons with heads stuffed full of facts and no appreciation of or talent for artistic pursuits.

The conclusion drawn in this argument follows logically if which one of the following is assumed?

(A) In the absence of school arts programs, many parents sign their children up for extracurricular classes in art and music.

(B) Schools with strong arts programs tend to produce students who also excel in academic subjects.

(C) Many people who never studied art, music, or drama in school nevertheless have gone on to become famous artists.

(D) If people are not exposed to the arts at school, they will never learn about them.

(E) The primary purpose of schools is to teach students the academic subjects they will need to flourish in the business world.

12. Columnist: Our town has lost its minor league baseball team. Another town in a different state offered to build a large, modern baseball stadium if the team would move there; our town has refused to update our stadium for years. This is a catastrophic loss to our town and will severely damage the local economy.

Which one of the following, if true, most strongly supports this argument?

(A) Building a new baseball stadium would have cost the town several million dollars that it would be unlikely to recoup through revenues generated by the baseball team.

(B) The baseball team's presence generated millions of dollars of revenue for the town every year by attracting out-of-town visitors who spent money on hotels, restaurants, and other goods and services.

(C) The current baseball stadium was already larger than necessary, and the bleachers were never more than half-full during home games.

(D) The baseball team would have gone to any city that was willing to grant its demands for new facilities, and it had no real loyalty to the town that had been its home for 20 years.

(E) In a local referendum, only a small minority of town citizens voted to spend the money necessary to build a new baseball stadium.

13. The President has proposed an initiative to help people stay married by teaching them skills needed to maintain relationships and raise healthy children. This initiative would focus on low-income unmarried people, who studies have shown are not likely to marry, even after they have children. We should support this initiative because it would be very beneficial to our most vulnerable citizens: the children of poor, unmarried women.

Which one of the following is an assumption required by this argument?

(A) If more poor people were married, society would be plagued by less drug dependency, crime, and teen pregnancy.

(B) People with higher incomes do not need as much help in maintaining their marriage and raising their children.

(C) Children raised by a mother and father who are married to one another are better off than children raised by a mother alone.

(D) The majority of welfare payments go to unmarried parents; encouraging marriage would reduce the number of people on welfare.

(E) Other governmental programs also designed to assist the family have been successful.

14. Isabel: The popular novels depicting the end of the world and the violent annihilation of all people who do not espouse a particular religion are dangerous. They encourage members of that religion to see all nonbelievers as evil people who deserve a horrific fate.

Ferdinand: I think you are overstating the significance of popular fiction. People read these books solely for entertainment purposes and do not allow them to affect their beliefs or actions.

Which one of the following statements is most strongly supported by this conversation?

(A) Ferdinand and Isabel disagree about the religious nature of these popular novels.

(B) Isabel believes that the end of the world is not a suitable topic for a popular novel.

(C) Ferdinand disagrees with Isabel that the books are popular.

(D) Isabel believes that popular fiction can affect people's beliefs and actions.

(E) Isabel and Ferdinand disagree about the amount of violence that is appropriate in a work of popular fiction.

15. Tia: Scientists and doctors have found that obesity is increasing rapidly in this country. Obesity causes many significant health problems. The government should therefore step in to regulate food manufacturing and advertising, which would help people consume fewer calories.

Muriel: It's true that obesity is increasing. The blame, however, lies with people who have made a personal choice to eat too much. Their weight is entirely in their control. Therefore, the government should not step in except perhaps to encourage people to eat more healthily and exercise occasionally.

This dialogue lends the most support to the claim that Tia and Muriel disagree with each other about which one of the following statements?

(A) Diet and exercise have proven effective at curing and preventing obesity in a large number of people.

(B) Government regulation is never the appropriate method for dealing with public health problems.

(C) Public schools can play an important role in teaching children the value of fruits, vegetables, and a balanced diet.

(D) Regulating modern food manufacturing and advertising would help prevent obesity.

(E) Private-sector approaches to problems are more successful than government programs.

16. Politician: Environmentalists claim that pollution is leading to global warming, which supposedly will raise the Earth's temperatures and lead to the melting of the polar ice caps, rising overall sea levels, and various other catastrophes. They must not have been paying attention to the winters lately; the last five years have seen record low temperatures in January and February. Therefore, global warming clearly is not happening.

The reasoning in the politician's argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument

(A) relies on evidence that presupposes the truth of the conclusion that it seeks to support

(B) uses an emotional appeal instead of arguing based on facts

(C) seeks unethically to minimize the negative effects of a troubling phenomenon

(D) relies on evidence too partial to establish the conclusion drawn

(E) suggests unfairly that environmentalists are politically biased

17. People should not focus just on immediate payoffs when deciding on a course of action; many acts bring few immediate payoffs but result in much larger payoffs in the future.

Which one of the following most closely conforms to this principle?

(A) A college graduate with a lucrative job offer decides to decline it and instead borrow several thousand dollars to attend medical school in the hopes of receiving a much larger future income as a physician.

(B) Investing in the stock market is a wise choice for anyone with enough excess cash; the stock market has historically outperformed other forms of saving, though occasionally investors have lost all their money.

(C) Parents should encourage their children to attend religious services every week because people with strong religious faith tend to be more successful than those without faith.

(D) Building houses for Habitat for Humanity is a good activity, allowing poor people to become homeowners with all the pride of ownership and responsibility for paying for their own property.

(E) It makes sense to buy the best furniture one can afford; good pieces will last a long time, whereas cheaper furniture breaks quickly and must be replaced.

18. Studies have shown that women make at least half of all car-purchasing decisions. Women notice details that men do not; for example, women especially appreciate drink holders and a back seat that makes it easier for them to reach children in child seats. Women are also more likely than men to choose cars based on environmental friendliness. Only a few car models have been designed with women's tastes in mind, but these vehicles outsell all others by a huge margin.

Which one of the following is most strongly supported by the information in this passage?

(A) More car manufacturers should work to reduce emissions from their vehicles instead of building large, gas-guzzling, truck-like vehicles.

(B) Most purchasers of minivans are women who drive their children to school and extracurricular activities and thus appreciate the size, safety, and convenience of minivans.

(C) All car manufacturers should conduct careful market research to determine what their customers want in vehicles.

(D) Car manufacturers that design cars according to female tastes can earn larger profits than those who do not.

(E) Because station wagons were very popular with women in the 1970s and 1980s, car manufacturers should make more station wagons to maximize profits.

19. Carter: A new study has shown that the more young children watch television, the more likely they are to develop attention deficit disorder. Television, for its part, has nothing to offer children. Because television offers no benefits and bears significant risks to development, children should never watch television.

Neri: The experts who ran that study believe that attention deficit disorder results from the extremely fast pace and disjointed nature of commercial television, not from the actual content of programs. Educational programs can actually stimulate brain development in young children; programs made by experts in child development can help them learn valuable lessons.

Carter and Neri disagree about whether

(A) violent programs on television teach children to behave more violently than they would if they did not watch such programs

(B) there is a difference in risk between children who watch less than one hour of television per day and those who watch more than three hours

(C) children can ever benefit from watching television

(D) the generation of people who grew up with educational programming have shown evidence of having benefited from their youthful television watching

(E) children who watch movies on videotape or DVD without commercials are as much at risk as children who watch commercial television

20. Park ranger: The National Park Service should pay close attention to naming its parks and monuments. Parks and monuments with attractive names bring in many more tourists than facilities with less inspiring names.

Which one of the following, if true, would provide the most support for the park ranger's assertion?

(A) Civil War buffs especially love Civil War battlefields, monuments, and state parks on which they can reenact historic battles.

(B) National parks in the western United States, which feature inspiring scenery, attract far more visitors than national parks in the eastern part of the country.

(C) The Sand Creek Massacre National Historic Site has a more appealing name than the Martin Van Buren National Historic Site.

(D) South Carolina's Congaree Swamp National Monument saw an increase in visitors after it changed its name to Congaree National Park.

(E) Yellowstone National Park brings in many visitors because it provides a variety of attractions, such as the Old Faithful geyser, petrified trees, and abundant wildlife.

21. It is outrageous that the government has outlawed smoking in so many public places. This is a question of civil liberties. Smokers know that smoking can make them sick, and if they choose to poison themselves, that should be their business. The government does not have the right to stop people from doing an activity that can only hurt the person engaging in it.

Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the argument?

(A) An irony of politics is that many people who believe that government should not interfere with people's economic lives and property rights also believe that the government has every right to regulate morality and private behavior.

(B) Five years after quitting smoking, a former smoker's lungs are difficult to distinguish from the lungs of someone who has never smoked.

(C) Most people who are diagnosed with lung cancer die within five years of the diagnosis.

(D) Experts attribute recent decreases in smoking rates to better education about the effects of smoking, the Surgeon General's warning on packs of cigarettes, and laws limiting the advertising of cigarettes.

(E) Recent studies have shown that nonsmokers who are exposed to secondhand smoke suffer more heart attacks, slower-healing wounds, and in general, higher mortality than people who breathe smoke-free air.

22. Actors tend to be extroverts who are perfectly comfortable appearing and speaking before a crowd of people. People who want to become more extroverted should therefore study drama and perform in plays.

The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument

(A) assumes that it is better to be extroverted than introverted

(B) presupposes that actors become extroverted because they study drama

(C) attributes a characteristic to actors without providing evidence to support that claim

(D) fails to adequately define the term “extrovert”

(E) ignores the other ways that people can improve their confidence in situations such as public speaking

23. Mathematician: In 1590, Sir Walter Raleigh discovered that the best way to store spherical objects such as cannonballs was stacked in a pyramid. Grocers who stock oranges also know intuitively that this principle makes sense, because it allows the top objects to sink into the spaces between the lower ones, maximizing the number of objects that can fit into a given space. Raleigh created an equation to express this principle and the famous scientist Johannes Kepler agreed with him, but it was not until 2004 that mathematicians using computers came up with an acceptable proof of the concept. The proof requires far too many calculations to do by hand, and mathematicians have not double-checked them all; nevertheless, computers are extremely accurate at calculations and all portions of the proof that have been checked are correct, so the mathematical community can feel confident that the computer-created proof is valid.

Which of the following most accurately expresses the main conclusion of the mathematician's argument?

(A) Although a computer-created proof might be too complex to check by hand in the traditional manner, computers are reliable enough today that mathematicians should be willing to admit proofs done by computers into the body of accepted mathematical knowledge.

(B) Although stacking spheres in a pyramid is one of the most efficient ways of storing them, there is another method that is just as efficient: arranging them in a honeycomb shape. Because the proof does not acknowledge this, it should not be accepted as valid.

(C) Mathematicians have done proofs by hand for centuries. This is the accepted method for proving mathematical hypotheses. Computers have little place in the world of theoretical mathematics.

(D) The mathematical journal that published this proof noted that scholars have not checked the entire proof, although the portions they have checked have all been proven accurate. This level of accuracy is not high enough to justify publication of the proof.

(E) A rigorous mathematical proof follows a chain of logic that begins with stated assumptions and leads inexorably to an inescapable conclusion. It should include every step along the way. The sphere-stacking problem has far too many steps to prove by hand.

24. In 1995, the federal government gave states the right to set their own speed limits; several states immediately increased their speed limits to 70 miles per hour, and some even abolished limits entirely. In most cases, this has not been a problem; the overall percentage of accidents per drivers has not increased since the speed limits were raised. At the same time, however, highway accident fatalities have increased 6 percent.

Which one of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent discrepancy described here?

(A) Teenage drivers are the most likely to exceed speed limits, and their driving skill is not yet equal to the task of avoiding high speed accidents.

(B) Accidents that occur at a higher speed are much more likely to be fatal than those at lower speeds.

(C) State governments are not as concerned with highway safety as the federal government was in the days of a federally mandated speed limit.

(D) In the 1970s, more people drove smaller, compact cars that got good gas mileage but were incapable of maintaining a high speed.

(E) Drivers today are often distracted by CD players, radios, cellphones, and other devices, which makes them more likely to get into accidents.

25. Consultant: It's always a good idea to start off a speech with a little joke. This relaxes the audience and makes them more willing to listen to what you have to say. Humor is a universal concept, so you should still start your speech with a joke even when speaking in a foreign country.

All of the following, if true, weaken this argument EXCEPT:

(A) It is very difficult to translate a joke into another language, and jokes from one country can be deeply offensive to people from other countries.

(B) In some societies, it is considered inappropriate for women to tell jokes.

(C) Many interpreters refuse to interpret jokes and simply inform the audience that the speaker has told a joke and request that the audience laugh.

(D) Studies have shown that audiences appreciate the opportunity to laugh while listening to a speech.

(E) Humor is a sign of aggression or dominance in some countries and can make an audience feel that the speaker is trying to exert power over them.


Section II

Reading Comprehension

Time: 35 minutes for 27 questions

Directions: Read each passage and answer the questions that follow it. Some questions may have more than one answer that looks correct. In that case, pick the one that answers the question most completely and correctly. Don't assume anything that isn't stated in the passage or the questions. All the information you need to answer the questions is contained in the passage, questions, and answer choices.

Questions 1–7 refer to the following passage.


1. Which one of the following most accurately states the main idea of the passage?

(A) Nishiwaki was a Japanese poet who rebelled against the strictures of his country's government and protested its policies toward Europe during World War II.

(B) Nishiwaki was a Japanese poet and literary critic who embraced European literature as a way of rebelling against the constraints of his family and traditional Japanese culture.

(C) Nishiwaki was a Japanese poet and professor who spent his life trying to convince young Japanese students that European literary forms were superior to Japanese poetic styles.

(D) Nishiwaki was a Japanese poet and linguist who throughout his life chose to write in English rather than Japanese.

(E) Nishiwaki was a Japanese poet and scholar who spent his life specializing in European literature, which proved tremendously influential to his own work.

2. The author's attitude toward Nishiwaki's life and career can be best described as

(A) scholarly interest in the life and works of a significant literary figure

(B) mild surprise at Nishiwaki's choosing to write poetry in a language foreign to him

(C) open admiration for Nishiwaki's ability to function in several languages

(D) skepticism toward Nishiwaki's motives in refusing to write poetry during the second world war

(E) envy of Nishiwaki's success in publishing and academia

3. The primary function of the first paragraph is to

(A) describe Nishiwaki's brief study of painting

(B) introduce Nishiwaki and his lifelong interest in European culture

(C) summarize Nishiwaki's contribution to Japanese literature

(D) explain why a Japanese man chose to specialize in English literature

(E) analyze European contributions to Japanese culture at the start of the 20th century

4. According to the passage, why did Nishiwaki stop writing poetry during World War II?

(A) He was too busy with his contributions to the Japanese war effort.

(B) The Japanese government rationed paper and ink, which made it impossible for him to write.

(C) He disapproved of the Japanese government's policies and in protest refused to write poetry.

(D) The Japanese government, fearing sedition, ordered him to stop writing poetry.

(E) Work on his dissertation on German literature took up all his time.

5. The passage is primarily concerned with

(A) comparing Nishiwaki's poetry to that of other Japanese poets of the 20th century

(B) discussing the role of the avant-garde movement in Nishiwaki's writing

(C) providing a brief biography of Nishiwaki that explains the significance of his work

(D) explaining why writers can benefit from studying literature from other countries

(E) describing the transformation in Japanese poetic style during the post-war period

6. According to the passage, which one of the following types of literature did NOT greatly interest Nishiwaki?

(A) Old English literature such as Beowulf

(B) modernist English verse such as The Waste Land

(C) Middle English literature such as The Canterbury Tales

(D) classical Greek works such as Antigone

(E) classical Japanese literature such as The Tale of Genji

7. Based on the passage, why did Nishiwaki choose to write his first published poems in English?

(A) He found that English allowed him to express a wider variety of thoughts and emotions than Japanese.

(B) He published the poems in London and believed that English readers would buy them if they were written in English.

(C) The poems were translations of Japanese poems into English.

(D) He believed that writing poetry in English would be a good way to improve his English language skills.

(E) The English literature department at Keio University required him to publish work in English before he could become a professor there.

Questions 8–14 refer to the following passage.


8. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage?

(A) Events of the last two decades have shown that sea urchins play a vital role in the maintenance of the ecosystems in which they live, contrary to what many scientists formerly assumed.

(B) It is the duty of responsible scientists to manipulate environments to ensure that they remain in ecological balance, such as by transporting sea urchins to reefs that have become overgrown with algae.

(C) Members of the phylum Echinodermata are often underappreciated but are extremely important to the health of coral reefs.

(D) Excessive algae growth is a severe problem in the tropical western Atlantic, and if governments fail to take action in the very near future, all the coral reefs in that area could die.

(E) Governments should educate their citizenry on the importance of keeping ecosystems in balance because this will help prevent people from abusing natural resources or introducing foreign substances that might be dangerous to local plants and animals.

9. The primary purpose of the second paragraph is to

(A) support the claim that sea urchins are important to their ecosystems

(B) describe the appearance and eating habits of sea urchins

(C) argue that the loss of sea urchins is devastating to the overall ecosystem

(D) illustrate the attitude of scientists toward invertebrates

(E) suggest that other members of the phylum Echinodermata might also eat algae

10. Based on the passage, which one of the following best describes the relationship between sea urchins, starfish, brittle stars, and sand dollars?

(A) They are all invertebrates that eat algae.

(B) They were all devastated by the bacterium that entered the Atlantic in 1983.

(C) They are all members of the same phylum.

(D) They are all covered with long, sharp spines.

(E) They can all be divided into five segments that radiate out from a center point.

11. According to the passage, what happened to the sea urchin population in the tropical western Atlantic in the mid-1980s?

(A) Fishermen and water sports enthusiasts systematically killed them off, hoping to eradicate what they believed was a pest.

(B) A plague killed the coral, which became so covered with algae that sea urchins could no longer reproduce.

(C) A sudden increase in triggerfish, one of the main predators of sea urchins, resulted in most juvenile sea urchins being eaten before they could reach breeding age.

(D) A virus spread by other echinoderms caused sea urchins from the Bahamas to Jamaica to sicken and die.

(E) A bacterium carried by a ship entering the Atlantic from the Pacific spread throughout the population and killed nearly all sea urchins.

12. Which one of the following, if true, best supports the author's claim that sea urchins are the key to removal of algae from coral reefs?

(A) Other animals, such as damselfish, also eat algae growing on coral reefs.

(B) The population of parrotfish, which eat coral, has increased in the years since the sea urchin population dropped.

(C) Coral reefs in regions that still have healthy sea urchin populations have almost no algae growing on them.

(D) Several different kinds of algae have grown on reefs in Jamaica and the Bahamas.

(E) New types of coral are beginning to predominate in areas that have lost sea urchin populations.

13. The author mentions the Environmental Protection Agency in the last paragraph primarily to

(A) point out the government's role in protecting marine habitats

(B) argue that the government should prevent shipping companies from transporting microbes from one marine environment to another

(C) provide an example of how the scientific community has altered its view of sea urchins

(D) illustrate how scientists since the early 1980s have failed to recognize the significance of sea urchins

(E) encourage voters to take a greater interest in environmental issues

14. Based on the passage, with which one of the following statements would the author be likely to agree?

(A) Humans can take an active role in assisting the recovery of ecosystems that have been harmed by human actions.

(B) It is a bad idea to remove sea urchins from successful breeding populations and introduce them into environments that might be hostile to them.

(C) Eradicating pests from the marine environment will make the waters of the tropical western Atlantic more pleasant for scuba divers and snorkelers.

(D) The Environmental Protection Agency should have fined the owner and pilot of the ship that carried the bacterium into the Atlantic in 1983.

(E) Animals other than sea urchins can adapt themselves to the ecological niche that sea urchins formerly occupied.

Questions 15–21 refer to the following two passages. The first is adapted from Managing Nonprofit Organizations, by Mary Tschirhart and Wolfgang Bielefeld (Wiley). The second is adapted from The Handbook of Nonprofit Governance, by BoardSource (Wiley).

Passage A


Passage B


15. The authors of the two passages share a concern that

(A) for-profit business are moving in on areas traditionally served by nonprofit organizations

(B) no government or regulatory agency exists with the sole purpose of monitoring the activities of nonprofit organizations

(C) investors desire to see measurable results from the money they commit to nonprofit organizations

(D) nonprofits may face difficulties staying true to their overall mission

(E) nonprofit board members sometimes have their own financial interests at heart instead of those of the nonprofit

16. Which of the following titles would most appropriately fit both passages?

(A) Managing the Nonprofit Sector: An Overview

(B) The Funding Crisis within the Nonprofit Sector

(C) Balancing the Mission of a Nonprofit with the Mission of Funders

(D) The Board: A Nonprofit's First Line of Defense

(E) A Brief History of the Nonprofit Sector

17. Which of the following claims about nonprofit management is NOT made by the author of Passage B?

(A) There are very few individuals who are familiar with the controls that govern nonprofits.

(B) There is no legitimate distinction between a director who sits on a nonprofit board and a trustee.

(C) Nonprofits are not governed by a major regulating body or bodies as most businesses are.

(D) Challenges facing nonprofits are exacerbated by the fact that they are organizations intended to serve the public good.

(E) Nonprofits lack a strong defense against corruption and fraud.

18. Which of the following provides a statement with which the authors of both passages would agree?

(A) Nonprofits are dealing with an influx of for-profit agencies occupying roles once traditionally served by the nonprofit sector.

(B) Many nonprofits that have experienced a loss of government funding have been unable to offset those losses with earned income or private donations.

(C) Fiscal difficulties for many nonprofits stem from a period of heavy government cutbacks that took place in the 1980s.

(D) The public should hold managers, leaders, and boards of nonprofit organizations liable for their decisions.

(E) An organization's stakeholders include donors, clients, volunteers, and community members.

19. Passage B most clearly indicates which of the following?

(A) Due to their very nature, nonprofits are immune from any damage that could be inflicted by unscrupulous or fraudulent solicitors.

(B) The nonprofit sector does not benefit from oversight by a “watchdog” organization whose purpose is to promote integrity, as businesses and the government do.

(C) An influx of B corporations is a major contributor to the erosion of sector boundaries.

(D) Nonprofit organizations are largely limited from engaging in activities that do not directly contribute to the mission at hand.

(E) The media ultimately holds nonprofits accountable for their actions.

20. The authors of both passages are likely to agree with all the following EXCEPT:

(A) All nonprofits are governed by more than just one individual.

(B) Leaders and managers of nonprofits face a variety of challenges.

(C) Most people do not understand how nonprofit organizations are regulated and monitored.

(D) Nonprofits must always operate with the public's best interests at heart.

(E) Nonprofits are under pressure from stakeholders.

21. Both passages refer to the government in an attempt to

(A) show that the government plays no role in the oversight of nonprofits

(B) explain that the government is not a stakeholder in the management of nonprofits

(C) point out the extent that government funding cutbacks have affected the mission of most nonprofits

(D) describe how government agencies and nonprofits are similar

(E) indicate the role that government plays in the operation of nonprofits

Questions 22–27 refer to the following passage.


22. Which one of the following titles would best suit the contents of the passage?

(A) Cloning and the Death of the Family

(B) Dolly, Dr. Frankenstein, and DNA: The Dangers of Cloning

(C) The Mechanics of Cloning

(D) Cloning: Just Another Way of Making a Baby

(E) The Government's Role in Preventing Unethical Scientific Research

23. The author of the passage would most probably agree with which one of the following statements about critics of cloning?

(A) People who criticize cloning are deeply devoted to religion and use their faith to justify obstructing scientific research that could have many benefits.

(B) Critics of cloning are correct to worry about the potentially destructive aspects of cloning, such as the creation of a master race or the manipulation of children to meet the specific needs of their parents.

(C) Those who worry about human cloning also object to techniques commonly used today in assisted reproduction, such as in vitro fertilization or the use of surrogate mothers.

(D) Most critics of cloning are worried about aspects of cloning that are not substantially different from the potential problems associated with methods of reproduction already in common use.

(E) Critics of cloning are most concerned about the practical drawbacks of cloning, such as the fact that clones seem to age faster than individuals conceived the normal way, and that they contain a larger than usual number of defective genes.

24. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) argue that most critics of cloning are focusing on drawbacks that are either outlandish or no different from the drawbacks of normal reproduction and that ethically cloning is not very different from normal reproduction

(B) explain the process of cloning and compare it to other techniques of genetic engineering and assisted reproduction, such as in vitro fertilization

(C) recommend that scientists and medical ethicists carefully consider the implications of allowing or banning research into cloning

(D) extol the many benefits of cloning, such as allowing same-sex couples to reproduce without having recourse to an external egg or sperm donor or allowing parents to make a clone of a dead child

(E) warn readers of the dangers of cloning, including both the ethical dilemmas of the odd family relationships cloning could create and the physical problems involved in the process of cloning

25. The author uses the words “nefarious” and “abominable” in the second paragraph to

(A) indicate that scientists who work with clones are morally bankrupt

(B) defend the Clinton administration's ban on research into human cloning

(C) describe the personalities of people who oppose cloning research

(D) criticize parents who want to use cloning to create particular children

(E) show that the worries of cloning critics are exaggerated and based more in fantasy than fact

26. The author would most probably agree with which one of the following statements about assisted reproduction?

(A) Children who are born as the result of fertility treatments tend to have emotional and health problems that are not as common in children conceived the traditional way.

(B) Governments should regulate scientific procedures and research according to what the citizen body believes is ethical and proper.

(C) Parents tend to treat children born through assisted reproduction differently from children conceived naturally because they value them more highly.

(D) In vitro fertilization is a sensible and positive use of technology to help people accomplish a natural human goal.

(E) Older parents and same-sex couples should not be allowed to use assisted reproduction to have children because that would violate the natural order.

27. The author mentions all the following risks of cloning EXCEPT:

(A) Clones appear to age faster than individuals conceived by normal means.

(B) Clones are more prone to genetic defects than individuals conceived normally.

(C) Parents of cloned children might not treat their clones naturally.

(D) People might have unreasonable expectations of cloned children.

(E) Cloned embryos have a high risk of dying during gestation and before birth.


Section III

Analytical Reasoning

Time: 35 minutes for 25 questions

Directions: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

Questions 1–6 refer to the following scenario.

A yoga studio offers classes in three kinds of yoga: ashtanga, bikram, and iyengar. It has five instructors — Caroline, Janice, Marty, Suzanne, and Virginia — each of whom teaches at least one of and as many as three of these kinds of yoga. The following conditions apply:

·        Exactly two of the instructors teach classes in the same kind or kinds of yoga.

·        Marty and Suzanne both teach iyengar.

·        Caroline and Marty each teach fewer kinds of yoga than Janice.

·        Caroline does not teach any kind of yoga taught by Virginia.

·        Virginia does not teach any kind of yoga taught by Janice.

1. Which one of the following must be true?

(A) Caroline teaches fewer kinds of yoga than Virginia does.

(B) Marty teaches fewer kinds of yoga than Suzanne does.

(C) Suzanne teaches fewer kinds of yoga than Janice does.

(D) Virginia teaches fewer kinds of yoga than Janice does.

(E) Virginia teaches fewer kinds of yoga than Suzanne does.

2. If Virginia does not teach iyengar, then which one of the following must be true?

(A) Janice teaches bikram.

(B) Janice teaches iyengar.

(C) Marty teaches ashtanga.

(D) Suzanne teaches ashtanga.

(E) Virginia teaches bikram.

3. Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the instructors who teach only bikram?

(A) Caroline

(B) Janice

(C) Caroline, Virginia

(D) Marty, Suzanne

(E) Caroline, Suzanne, Virginia

4. Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the instructors who teach iyengar?

(A) Marty, Suzanne

(B) Janice, Suzanne

(C) Caroline, Janice, Suzanne

(D) Caroline, Marty, Suzanne

(E) Janice, Marty, Suzanne

5. How many instructors must teach only one kind of yoga?

(A) one

(B) two

(C) three

(D) four

(E) five

6. If exactly three instructors teach ashtanga, which one of the following could be true?

(A) Caroline teaches iyengar.

(B) Janice does not teach ashtanga.

(C) Marty teaches ashtanga.

(D) Suzanne teaches bikram.

(E) Suzanne does not teach ashtanga.

Questions 7–12 refer to the following scenario.

Seven Roman noblemen — Antonius, Brutus, Cassius, Decimus, Octavius, Servilius, and Vipsanius — have to decide whether they support or oppose the rule of dictator Julius Caesar. Those who support Caesar call themselves Patriots; those who oppose Caesar call themselves Liberators. Each of the seven noblemen aligns himself with one of the two groups according to the following principles:

·        Octavius and Cassius do not join the same group.

·        Antonius and Decimus do not join the same group.

·        If Decimus decides to be a Patriot, so does Servilius.

·        If Brutus decides to be a Patriot, both Cassius and Vipsanius would be Liberators.

·        If Octavius decides to be a Patriot, Servilius would be a Liberator.

7. If Octavius joins the Liberators, which of the following must be true?

(A) Antonius joins the Liberators.

(B) Brutus joins the Liberators.

(C) Decimus joins the Patriots.

(D) Servilius joins the Patriots.

(E) Vipsanius joins the Patriots.

8. If Cassius and Vipsanius both join the Liberators, then which of the following must be false?

(A) Antonius joins the Patriots.

(B) Brutus joins the Liberators.

(C) Decimus joins the Liberators.

(D) Octavius joins the Patriots.

(E) Servilius joins the Patriots.

9. If Antonius and Vipsanius both join the Patriots, then which one of the following could be true?

(A) Brutus and Cassius both join the Liberators.

(B) Brutus and Octavius both join the Patriots.

(C) Cassius and Decimus both join the Patriots.

(D) Cassius and Octavius both join the Liberators.

(E) Decimus and Servilius both join the Patriots.

10. Which one of the following pairs of men cannot both be Liberators?

(A) Antonius and Octavius

(B) Antonius and Servilius

(C) Antonius and Vipsanius

(D) Cassius and Vipsanius

(E) Octavius and Servilius

11. What is the maximum number of noblemen who can be Patriots?

(A) one

(B) two

(C) three

(D) four

(E) five

12. Which one of the following could be an accurate and complete list of the Patriots?

(A) Antonius, Cassius, Vipsanius

(B) Antonius, Cassius, Decimus, Servilius

(C) Antonius, Octavius, Servilius, Vipsanius

(D) Brutus, Decimus, Octavius

(E) Decimus, Servilius, Vipsanius

Questions 13–18 refer to the following scenario.

Six plays are scheduled to be performed at the Dionysia, the annual theater festival in Athens. They are: Antigone, Clouds, Electra, Frogs, Helen, and Orestes. The plays will be performed on six consecutive days, beginning on Tuesday. In order to mix up comedy and tragedy, give the actors an occasional break, and accommodate the desires of the town fathers, the organizers must observe the following rules when arranging the schedule:

·        The performance of Helen is scheduled for Thursday.

·        Antigone must be performed on a day sometime after Orestes.

·        At least one of the plays is performed between the performance of Antigone and the performance of Frogs.

·        Exactly one of the plays is performed between the performances of Clouds and Frogs, and they must have a break of exactly one day between performances.

13. Which one of the following is an acceptable schedule for the festival, starting with the play performed on Tuesday?

(A) Antigone, Electra, Helen, Frogs, Orestes, Clouds

(B) Electra, Orestes, Helen, Clouds, Antigone, Frogs

(C) Frogs, Clouds, Helen, Orestes, Antigone, Electra

(D) Orestes, Frogs, Helen, Clouds, Antigone, Electra

(E) Orestes, Antigone, Frogs, Helen, Clouds, Electra

14. Which one of the following must be true?

(A) Either Antigone or Orestes is performed on Wednesday.

(B) Either Antigone or Orestes is performed on Friday.

(C) Either Clouds or Frogs is performed on Wednesday.

(D) Either Clouds or Frogs is performed on Friday.

(E) Either Electra or Orestes is performed on Saturday.

15. Which play CANNOT be performed on Sunday?

(A) Antigone

(B) Clouds

(C) Electra

(D) Frogs

(E) Orestes

16. Which one of the following must be false?

(A) Antigone and Clouds are performed on consecutive days, with no other play between them.

(B) Exactly one play is performed between Antigone and Clouds.

(C) Electra and Orestes are performed on consecutive days, with no other play between them.

(D) Frogs and Orestes are performed on consecutive days, with no other play between them.

(E) Exactly one play is performed between Helen and Orestes.

17. Which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the days on which Frogs could be performed?

(A) Tuesday, Wednesday, Friday

(B) Wednesday, Thursday, Saturday

(C) Wednesday, Friday

(D) Wednesday, Friday, Sunday

(E) Wednesday, Friday, Saturday, Sunday

18. Which one of the following CANNOT be true?

(A) Clouds is performed on Wednesday.

(B) Electra is performed on Wednesday.

(C) Frogs is performed on Wednesday.

(D) Orestes is performed on Tuesday.

(E) Orestes is performed on Saturday.

Questions 19–25 refer to the following scenario.

A boutique law firm provides services in only four areas of law: employment, immigration, real estate, and tax. Four attorneys share the work; their names are Burton, Duway, Cheatham, and Howard. Each attorney specializes in at least one and at most three areas of law, according to the following specifications:

·        Duway specializes in an area of law that is also Cheatham's specialty.

·        Burton and Howard do not share any specialties with Cheatham.

·        Exactly one attorney specializes in tax.

·        Exactly two attorneys specialize in employment.

·        Exactly two attorneys specialize in real estate.

·        Exactly three attorneys specialize in immigration.

19. If Duway specializes in two and only two areas of law, which one of the following must be true?

(A) Burton does not specialize in tax law.

(B) Cheatham does not specialize in employment law.

(C) Duway does not specialize in tax law.

(D) Howard does not specialize in employment law.

(E) Howard does not specialize in tax law.

20. Which one of the following must be true?

(A) Burton specializes in more areas of law than Cheatham.

(B) Howard specializes in more areas of law than Duway.

(C) Duway specializes in more areas of law than Howard.

(D) Duway specializes in more areas of law than Cheatham.

(E) Burton specializes in more areas of law than Howard.

21. Each of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the attorneys who specialize in both employment and immigration EXCEPT:

(A) Duway

(B) Burton

(C) Burton and Howard

(D) Duway and Burton

(E) Duway and Howard

22. If Cheatham specializes in exactly two areas of law, then each of the following must be false EXCEPT:

(A) Duway specializes in tax law.

(B) Duway specializes in exactly two areas of law.

(C) Howard specializes in employment law.

(D) Howard specializes in tax law.

(E) Howard specializes in exactly three areas of law.

23. If Burton specializes in exactly three areas of law, which one of the following must be true?

(A) Burton specializes in employment law.

(B) Burton specializes in real estate law.

(C) Burton specializes in tax law.

(D) Howard specializes in employment law.

(E) Howard specializes in tax law.

24. Which one of the following statements CANNOT be true of the attorney who specializes in tax?

(A) The attorney also specializes in immigration but does not specialize in real estate.

(B) The attorney also specializes in both immigration and real estate.

(C) The attorney also specializes in real estate but not in immigration.

(D) The attorney also specializes in employment but not in real estate.

(E) The attorney specializes in neither employment nor real estate.

25. Each of the following must be false EXCEPT:

(A) Burton specializes in three areas: employment, immigration, and real estate.

(B) Burton specializes in three areas: employment, real estate, and tax.

(C) Duway specializes in three areas: employment, immigration, and real estate.

(D) Duway specializes in three areas: employment, real estate, and tax.

(E) Howard specializes in three areas: employment, real estate, and tax.


Section IV

Logical Reasoning

Time: 35 minutes for 25 questions

Directions: Read the passage and choose the best answer. Some questions may have more than one answer that looks right. Select the one that answers the question most completely. Don't assume anything that isn't directly stated, and don't let your imagination run wild; all the information you need is in the arguments and the answer choices.

1. Manufacturer: Our child car seat is the safest on the market. We know it's safe because the most conscientious parents have bought it. We're sure they're the most conscientious customers because they bought the car seat that claimed to be the safest on the market.

Which one of the following uses a pattern of reasoning that is most closely parallel to the flawed reasoning in the manufacturer's argument?

(A) This soft drink is the best-tasting soft drink on the market. We know it's the best tasting because 8 out of 10 people who participated in taste tests said it was best.

(B) Children who attend high-quality preschools tend to perform well when they enter elementary school. They perform well in elementary school because they attended high-quality preschools.

(C) These soccer shoes must be the best because all the best soccer players use them, and the best players wear only the best shoes.

(D) This web browser is the best on the market. The most technologically savvy people use this browser, and they can choose any browser they want.

(E) This curl-enhancing lotion is the best styling product available. People with curly hair find that this lotion enhances their curls better than any similar product.

2. A current trend in home buying is the interest-only mortgage, where the borrower need only pay the interest on the loan. As a result, the principal, or amount borrowed, never decreases. Buyers frequently default because they never accumulate an ownership stake (“equity”) in their homes, so these loans are bad for Americans and should therefore be eliminated entirely.

Which one of the following is an assumption required by the argument?

(A) Homeowners with interest-only mortgages will not accumulate equity based on the increasing value of their homes.

(B) Some things that are bad for Americans should be eliminated entirely.

(C) With an interest-only mortgage, the buyer does not need to pay back more than the interest.

(D) Buyers with no equity in their homes frequently default on their loans.

(E) Homeowners cannot afford to pay more than the interest on the loan.

3. Normal, healthy human beings cannot tickle themselves because they anticipate the sensation and reduce their touch perception accordingly. By reducing the perception of completely predictable sensations, the brain is allowed to focus on crucial environmental changes not produced by one's own actions. A person who tried to tickle himself while also being tickled by someone else will have a heightened sense of the other person's touch in relation to his own. Healthy human beings also cannot mistake the sound of their own voice as that of another. Schizophrenics, however, might hear their own voices and, having not anticipated the sounds, be unable to recognize their voices as their own.

If the statements in this passage are accurate, which one of the following statements do they best support?

(A) Healthy human beings always anticipate the sounds of their own voices and differentiate them from other voices.

(B) Human beings cannot tickle themselves because they anticipate the sensation.

(C) Additional research in this area may lead to a more thorough understanding of why some people are more susceptible to tickling than others.

(D) A healthy human being that hears a tape of her own voice will not recognize it because she does not anticipate the sounds.

(E) Tickling yourself while someone else tickles you reduces your sensory perceptions, making you not react to the tickling.

4. Prosecutor: I have furnished evidence that the accused committed the crime in question. The defense agrees that the crime did occur. They say that the accused did not commit the crime, but they have not proven that someone else did. Therefore, the jury should find that the defendant is guilty.

The reasoning in the prosecutor's argument is flawed because the argument

(A) ignores evidence that the accused might be innocent

(B) criticizes the arguments by the defense without addressing their flaws

(C) confuses the defense's failure to prove that someone else committed the crime with proof that the accused is guilty

(D) implies that because the defense has admitted that the crime did occur, the defendant must be guilty

(E) fails to consider the possibility that someone else committed the crime

5. The interior western United States is sinking. The area of the U.S. between the Sierra Nevada Mountains and the Colorado Plateau is known as the Basin and Range. This area has been sinking for millions of years due to expansion of the Earth's crust. The lowest point in North America, Death Valley, California, is part of the Basin and Range. Because the southern portion of the region is sinking much faster than the northern portion, places like Phoenix, Arizona, at just over 1,100 feet of elevation, are very low, and places farther north, like Reno, Nevada, at almost 4,500 feet of elevation, are higher. The fact that the elevation of the southern part of the region is getting progressively lower allows more moisture from the Gulf of California to bypass places like Phoenix and penetrate farther into the northern part of the region.

If the statements in this argument are accurate, which one of the following is most supported by them?

(A) The southern portion of the Basin and Range region includes areas that are very dry and well below sea level.

(B) The region known as the Basin and Range will continue to expand into areas that are currently part of the Colorado Plateau.

(C) As the northern portion of the Basin and Range region continues to sink, the southern areas of the region will receive more moisture.

(D) The drier climate of places like Phoenix is attributable to the compression of the Earth's crust.

(E) As the Basin and Range area continues to sink, Phoenix, Arizona, will become drier, while areas to the north will receive more moisture.

6. Many names that people think of as Irish were actually brought to Ireland by the Anglo-Norman invasion of Ireland in the 12th century. Names like Seamus, Patrick, and Sean are so widespread because of the Catholic Church's requirements that Irish sons and daughters be named after saints. Seamus is the Gaelic version of James, and Sean is the Gaelic version of John. Criminal laws in Ireland from the 1500s to the 1900s forbade parents from giving their children traditional Irish names like Cathal, Aodh, and Brian. Now that parents are free to do so, they should give their children these previously forbidden traditional names that are truly Irish.

Which one of the following statements is most supported by the information in this argument?

(A) Irish parents prefer to give their children names that are as traditionally Irish as possible.

(B) Even after hundreds of years of use, names like Patrick, Seamus, and Sean are still not truly Irish.

(C) Parents in Ireland are now free to give their children any name that they choose.

(D) Names like Aodh and Brian that were used in Ireland since before the 12th century are genuinely traditional.

(E) The introduction of non-Irish names into Ireland in the 12th century was a historical injustice.

7. The standard computer keyboard, called QWERTY because of the arrangement of the first six letters, is very inefficient. The letters were arranged in this odd but familiar manner when the first typewriters were being designed in the 1800s. When keys were arranged logically, typists could strike the keys very quickly. Early typewriters were so slow the fast typists caused mechanical problems in the machines. In order to slow down the typists, the keys were rearranged in a seemingly random order. If a manufacturer of computer keyboards were to arrange the keys in the most efficient manner, everyone would want to buy a new, improved keyboard.

Which of the following, if true, most undermines the reasoning in this argument?

(A) The human brain is incredibly flexible and can adapt to any arrangement of the keyboard, even if it is less efficient.

(B) Modern computer word-processing systems are much faster than the most accomplished typist, so there is no reason to use the slower keyboard.

(C) Computer keyboards include many keys that were not needed on manual or electric typewriters.

(D) Americans have universally adapted to the QWERTY keyboard and are not interested in learning an entirely new system.

(E) Discovering the most efficient arrangement of keys would require extensive tests on typists and nontypists alike.

8. Major airlines claim that the fares they charge have not increased in recent years. However, the various fees that used to be included in the quoted fare are now charged separately. The fees added to the quoted fare now include a security fee, a fuel surcharge, and an airport departure fee. The airlines are just following the example of other travel-related industries that have added on fees and taxes for years. The rental car and hotel industries usually quote a rate that is 20 percent less than the actual bill. In major cities, restaurants and bars usually have an additional tax rate that is included on the bill with the sales tax. Thus, there is not one aspect of traveling where the quoted price is the final price.

Which of the following, if true, most weakens the author's conclusion?

(A) The price of a gallon of gasoline that is quoted at the pump and on gas station signs includes all fuel taxes and fees.

(B) In countries other than the United States and Canada, the quoted price is often just a starting point for negotiations.

(C) Many items ordered through the mail include shipping and handling fees that are more than the cost of the actual item.

(D) The quoted price for travel on most cruise ships does not include excursion fees, beverages charges, and staff gratuities.

(E) The price quoted for a new car usually does not include the destination charge, which is the cost of getting the car to the dealership.

9. During the last three years, a sizable drop in the number of cigarette smokers in America has occurred. The same period has also seen an increase in advertisements and warnings about the dangers associated with smoking, so the drop in the number of cigarette smokers must be a result of increased consumer awareness of smoking's hazardous effects.

Which of the following, if true, most weakens this argument?

(A) Sales of antismoking aids, like nicotine patches and gum, have decreased in the last three years.

(B) Heavy smokers often experience mild withdrawal symptoms for several days after minimizing their nicotine intake.

(C) Consumption of cigars has increased during the last three years.

(D) The cost of cigarettes has skyrocketed in the last three years because of tax increases on big tobacco companies.

(E) The number of cigarette smokers in the general population is 5 percent fewer than it was three years ago.

10. Studies suggest that productivity in the workplace improves with a person's physical health. The firm of Claar & Carlisle, then, should enhance employee productivity by implementing mandatory fitness classes each morning before the workday begins.

Which of the following is an assumption required by this argument?

(A) The mandatory fitness classes will improve the physical health of Claar & Carlisle's employees.

(B) Fitness classes are better at promoting physical health than are nutrition classes.

(C) Many employees resent mandatory fitness programs and consider the decision of whether to work out to be a personal rather than work-related one.

(D) Mandatory fitness classes before work are more productive than fitness classes taken after work.

(E) Employees who work out regularly sleep more soundly than those who do not.

11. Rising Stars Dance Company has cemented its reputation as a premier children's dance school due in large part to major donations from former members who enjoy attending the annual statewide dance showcase. Although Rising Stars is widely regarded as being the best of its kind, the showcase was canceled this year; so Rising Stars will experience a resulting reduction in donations.

Which one of the following is an assumption on which this argument depends?

(A) Rising Stars’ reputation as a premier children's dance school is enhanced by the amount of money it receives from donors.

(B) Rising Stars’ annual showcase will likely be canceled next year as well.

(C) Some former members of Rising Stars contribute to the dance school because they enjoy attending the annual showcase.

(D) Former members of Rising Stars will have at least as much money to donate next year as they did this year.

(E) Contributions from former members are necessary for Rising Stars to be able to put on its annual showcase.

12. To lure customers away from competitors, Exploration Rent-A-Car has begun to offer fuel discounts to customers who spend more than $500 on any single rental. Exploration's executives claim that the discount program has been massively successful, because single rentals of $500 or more are up 25 percent from before the program launched.

Which one of the following, if true, most undermines the reasoning made by Exploration's executives?

(A) Since the discount program began, most of the customers who spend $500 or more at Exploration are new customers.

(B) Most of the customers who used Exploration after the discount program launched spent more than $500 with every rental.

(C) The majority of the customers who have spent in excess of $500 on a single rental since the fuel discounts began are regular customers who now make lengthier but less frequent rental arrangements.

(D) Customers who generally spend less than $500 each time they rent from Exploration are unlikely to be persuaded to spend more by fuel discount incentives.

(E) Customers who took advantage of the fuel discounts at Exploration will continue to rent from there after the promotion ends.

13. The government should mandate that both men and women take, at minimum, two weeks of paid family leave following the birth of their child. That way, the child has the chance to develop meaningful relationships with both parents, and both parents can get a better idea of whether they would prefer to stay home with the child or return to the workplace.

Which one of the following, assuming all are true, does NOT offer a logical rebuttal to this argument?

(A) Parents who would prefer being in the workplace over staying home with a child may end up resenting the child, which may deter them from developing a meaningful relationship with their child.

(B) Parents can build meaningful personal relationships with their newborns after work hours.

(C) Deciding which parent stays home with a newborn after its birth is a decision for each set of parents to decide. A child's parents have a better sense of what is in the best interest of their family than the government does.

(D) Two weeks is not sufficient time for parents to decide whether they prefer to stay home with their child or return to the workplace.

(E) Parents who care for their child full time immediately after birth when the child is most vulnerable are likely to develop a stronger emotional connection with the child than parents who do not.

14. The cost of producing silk scarves in Taiwan is 35 percent less than it is in the United States. Even when you take into consideration taxes and shipping costs, it is still more cost effective to produce the scarves in Taiwan than in the United States.

Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?

(A) Taxes on a scarf imported from Taiwan to the United States are less than 35 percent of the cost of manufacturing the scarf in the United States.

(B) The cost of transporting a scarf from Taiwan to the United States is more than 35 percent of the cost of manufacturing the scarf in the United States.

(C) Importing scarves from Taiwan to the United States will reduce manufacturing jobs in the United States by 35 percent.

(D) Manufacturing a scarf in Taiwan takes 35 percent less time than it does in the United States.

(E) Labor costs in Taiwan are 35 percent less than in the United States.

15. Since the invention of digital downloads and MP3 music sharing, musicians have begun to focus more on making a profit and attracting fans who are technologically savvy and less on producing quality, meaningful music. As a result, music has lost much of its creativity and artistry.

Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?

(A) Technologically savvy fans prefer music that is not meaningful.

(B) Digital downloads and MP3 music sharing have made the music business more profitable.

(C) Some musicians sacrifice quality in a quest to make more money.

(D) Music must lack quality and artistry in order to be popular.

(E) Music is meaningful when it is creative and inventive.

16. A whistleblower at Goodman-Horning claims that the company discriminates against women, citing that of the 10 executives on staff only 1 is female and only 3 of the 50 subordinate staff members are female.

Which one of the following offers the strongest argument against the whistleblower's claims?

(A) Male and female executives at the company earn the same amount of money.

(B) The number of female job applicants that Goodman-Horning rejected is about the same as the number of female job applicants rejected by other similar companies.

(C) Male and female executives at the company are equally qualified.

(D) The long hours required of Goodman-Horning's executive staff members are less desirable for women.

(E) The ratio of male to female employees at Goodman-Horning is about the same as the ratio of male to female job applicants.

17. The federal government estimates that, per mile traveled, the ratio of the number of motorcycle deaths to automobile deaths is 37 to 1. Therefore, to protect the safety of their citizens, most states have implemented laws that mandate some sort of helmet use for motorcycle riders. Opponents of motorcycle helmet laws maintain that in a free country, people should have the right to engage in potentially dangerous behavior at their discretion as long as they are not harming others. They think it should be a matter of individual choice whether to wear a helmet when riding a motorcycle.

Which one of the following statements, if true, most weakens the helmet opponents’ argument?

(A) Head injuries from motorcycle accidents exceed head injuries from auto accidents.

(B) Motorcycle insurance rates for all motorcycle owners have risen by 5 percent over the last decade to offset the medical costs associated with head injuries incurred by motorcycle riders who fail to wear helmets.

(C) Some states do not require motorcycle riders to wear helmets, leaving the decision of whether to wear a helmet up to the individual.

(D) Most states have laws that require bicycle riders under the age of 18 to wear helmets.

(E) More head injuries are reported by motorcycle riders who do not wear helmets than by those who do.

18. Executives of several large and small businesses have united in an effort to oppose proposed legislation that would prohibit them from requesting access to potential employees’ social media accounts. Proponents of the new law state that requesting access to job applicants’ social media pages is an egregious invasion of personal privacy and claim that what applicants post on their social media sites is no indication of how they would perform on the job.

Which one of the following, if true, adds the most support for the position of the group of executives?

(A) The level of discretion and common sense people exhibit when they use social media directly mirrors their use of the same in day-to-day personal and business interactions.

(B) Individuals who have a strong social media presence tend to be better informed than those who do not.

(C) Requesting and requiring access to another's social media page is a clear violation of First Amendment rights.

(D) Potential employers have the right to request access to anything they want from applicants, and the potential employee, in turn, has the right to deny access and pursue employment elsewhere.

(E) No level of privacy whatsoever can be assumed when it comes to the Internet.

19. Studies show that nearly one-third of women in America today give birth via Cesarean section, a far more expensive procedure than a vaginal birth. In 1965, fewer than 5 percent of all babies were born by using the Cesarean method. This proves that hospitals today are motivated primarily by money and do not have the best interests of their patients at heart.

Which one of the following statements, if true, most weakens the argument?

(A) Midwives were far more popular in 1965 than they are today.

(B) Studies have shown that increasingly greater numbers of women are choosing elective Cesarean section deliveries for cosmetic and other personal reasons.

(C) Doctors are required to take a solemn oath that they will perform their duties with a primary focus on the patient's best interests.

(D) Statistics regarding medical procedures are far more accurate and readily available today than they were in 1965.

(E) There were fewer surgeons trained in the Cesarean section procedure in 1965 than there are today.

20. As incidents of employee theft skyrocketed during the last decade, more and more businesses have implemented stiffer penalties and zero-tolerance policies. Yet most of these businesses are not seeing a decrease in the number of incidents of employee theft, so the stiffer penalties clearly are not working.

Which one of the following statements, if true, most weakens the argument?

(A) At the same time that businesses began imposing stiffer sanctions for employee theft, the average number of employees per business increased.

(B) Businesses have fewer employees now than they did ten years ago.

(C) In the last decade, most businesses have redefined their definition of theft.

(D) Businesses’ theft prevention efforts in general have been reduced due to budget constraints.

(E) All new employees have been forced to undergo theft prevention training.

21. In the 1970s, researchers on a small island nation conducted a study by using a sample of pregnant women who resided there. Of those sampled, 35 were daily smokers of marijuana and 35 had never smoked. The study indicated that the babies of the marijuana smokers were just as healthy as those of nonsmokers and concluded that smoking marijuana has little effect on the health of a woman's unborn child.

Which one of the following statements, if true, most weakens the conclusion of the researchers?

(A) The women in the study who smoked marijuana were from the same village, one whose residents were of a substantially higher socioeconomic status than the rest of the country, with better access to prenatal care.

(B) The women in the study who smoked daily reported less cramping and nausea throughout their pregnancies than those who did not smoke.

(C) The women in the study who smoked marijuana were from the same village, one that cultivated 85 percent of the country's supply of marijuana and whose residents used marijuana at a higher rate than residents of other villages.

(D) Marijuana has been shown to be far less damaging to an unborn fetus than tobacco is.

(E) The women in the study who smoked regularly were generally farther along in their pregnancies when the study began than those in the nonsmoking group.

22. Our state's students would benefit tremendously if the state government would allow for a school voucher system, where students are allotted a certain amount of money to spend for tuition at any school they like, public or private.

Which one of the following statements, if true, most weakens the argument?

(A) A school voucher program would increase competitiveness among schools and force underperforming schools to improve in order to attract enough students to stay afloat.

(B) Vouchers can help minimize the disparity between private and state education, a major divider in the current class system.

(C) Students in poorer neighborhoods cannot afford the transportation costs required to attend schools that are not located nearby.

(D) Educational historians agree that without outside incentives, schools are unlikely to change.

(E) Public schools tend to provide an overall better educational experience than private schools.

23. Serena: Anthropologists estimate that diseases brought to the Western Hemisphere by the first Europeans, including smallpox, hepatitis, typhus, and measles, killed 95 percent of the Native American population and allowed Europeans to begin their conquest of the continent. If the Native American population had been 20 times greater, only 4.75 percent of the population would have died, and the Europeans would never have been able to conquer North and South America.

Maeve: Those death rates are way too high. The average rate of death in Europe from the most virulent epidemic in recorded history, the Black Death of the 14th century, was only 33 percent. Even if the Native American populations were extremely vulnerable due to their never having been exposed to these diseases, the cumulative death rate of all the diseases should not have been more than 50 percent to 75 percent on average.

Which of the following statements, if true, would most weaken Maeve's conclusion?

(A) Diseases that quickly kill more than 75 percent of their infected hosts usually die off with their host's extinction.

(B) The death rates from the Black Death were higher than 33 percent in specific locations.

(C) At the time of Columbus, Native Americans were much less genetically diverse than Europeans, so there were fewer possibilities of natural immunity.

(D) Native Americans generally lacked the enzyme that would allow them to digest the sugars in milk.

(E) Knowledge of medicine in Native America was much more advanced than in Europe at the time of Columbus.

24. Employers lose millions of work hours from employees every year during the NCAA basketball tournament known as March Madness. The men's and women's tournaments are conducted simultaneously, and tens of millions of American workers enter contests where they pick the winner of each game. Because some early round games actually take place during work hours, many employees are constantly checking basketball scores instead of working. Even employees who do not watch basketball at any other time of the year get caught up in the excitement.

Which one of the following statements follows logically from the statements in this passage?

(A) Together, the men's and women's NCAA tournaments form the world's most popular sporting event.

(B) Many different strategies exist for predicting the tournament winners, such as using team names, mascots, or uniform colors.

(C) American businesses should make allowances for their employees’ lack of productivity during these two special weeks of the year.

(D) The NCAA tournament is appropriately named because of the “madness” it creates among employees in March of every year.

(E) Employees should not be allowed to check sports scores during business hours.

25. Astronomers estimate that the next sunspot cycle will be 30 percent to 50 percent more active than the current cycle. Solar activity, including sunspots and solar flares, ejects huge quantities of charged particles into space. These particles are responsible for the phenomenon known as the aurora borealis, or “northern lights.” The same particles also interfere with radio signals, disrupt satellite communications, and impede the transmission of power across high-voltage lines. Even though the next cycle of solar activity is predicted to be less intense than the peak cycle of a decade ago, the impacts will be felt by many more people around the world.

Which of the following statements, if true, would provide the strongest explanation for the paradox of the weaker solar activity's causing greater disruption?

(A) Fiber-optic cables that supply the Internet connections for tens of millions of Americans are not affected by solar activity the way that radio and satellite signals are.

(B) Radio signals have become stronger and less likely to be disrupted, but many people rely on a satellite signal for the music and news they hear on their radios.

(C) There are actually fewer high-voltage power lines in the Upper Midwest than there were a decade ago.

(D) The northern lights are usually seen only in the very highest latitudes, but during periods of intense activity, they can be seen as far south as Chicago.

(E) There has been an exponential increase in the number of people around the world with cellphones that could be disrupted by solar activity.


Writing Sample

Johnson, Stevens, & Kunam, a mid-sized advertising firm, is seeking a new manager for one of its oldest accounts, a snack food company. Using the following facts, write an essay within the time limit of 35 minutes in which you argue for hiring one of the following applicants over the other based on these two criteria:

·        The firm wants to hire someone who knows how to appeal to the client's ideal demographic — young adults who are technologically savvy.

·        The firm wants to hire someone with a significant amount of advertising experience.

Tyler is a recent graduate of a well-recognized journalism program, where he majored in digital media. He interned for six months with a large advertising firm that specializes in innovative campaigns that emphasize reaching college-age adults through social media, cellphone applications, and other innovative technologies. The glowing recommendation letter written by his internship supervisor confirms that Tyler is proficient in new technologies and has impressed clients with his creativity and innovation.

Miranda has worked as an advertising account executive for more than 30 years. She has managed successful campaigns for a variety of products, including comestibles, but she admittedly has little experience with digital media and new technologies. Her impressive portfolio contains a plethora of award-winning examples of print and TV advertisements.