SAT For Dummies

Part V

Where the Rubber Meets the Road: Practice Tests

Chapter 26

Practice Exam 4

Taking an SAT exam is a little like banging your head against the wall: You feel good when you stop! If you’ve been working your way through the five practice tests in this book in order (although you don’t have to do so), this test is almost the last bit of wall. So reread the general SAT directions at the beginning of Chapter 20 and get ready to smash any possible barrier between you and a higher score. Answers and explanations for this exam appear in Chapter 27, but don’t peek ahead until after you finish going through this test!

Note: The real SAT you take will have ten sections, instead of the nine you see here, because the College Board throws in an “equating section” that doesn’t count toward your score but allows the testers to evaluate new questions. The SAT doesn’t tell you which section is useless (to you). Because I’m here to help you score high on the SAT, I don’t include an equating section in any of the practice tests in this book. Nice of me, huh?

Answer Sheet

For Section 1, use two sheets of loose-leaf or notebook paper to write your essay. For the questions in Sections 2 through 9, use the ovals and grid-ins to record your answers. Begin with Number 1 for each new section. If any sections have fewer than 35 questions, leave the extra spaces blank.

Section 2: Critical Reading

Section 3: Mathematics

Section 4: Critical Reading

Section 5: Mathematics

Section 6: Multiple-Choice Writing

Section 7: Critical Reading

Section 8: Mathematics

Section 9: Multiple-Choice Writing

Section 1

The Essay

Time: 25 minutes

Directions: In response to the following prompt, write an essay on a separate sheet of paper (the answer sheet). You may use extra space in the question booklet to take notes and to organize your thoughts, but only the answer sheet will be graded.

“We learn wisdom from failure much more than from success. We often discover what will do by finding out what will not do; and probably he who never made a mistake never made a ­discovery.” —Samuel Smiles

What does one learn, if anything, from failure? Can failure be a benefit or must it be harmful? In a well-organized essay, address these questions, developing and supporting your point of view by drawing upon history, literature, current events, or your own experience and observations.

Section 2

Critical Reading

Time: 25 minutes for 24 questions

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Directions for Questions 1–8: Select the answer that best fits the meaning of the sentence.

Example: After he had broken the dining room window, Hal’s mother _____ him.

(A) selected

(B) serenaded

(C) fooled

(D) scolded

(E) rewarded

The answer is (D).

1. Achieving a vaccination rate of 25 percent, said health officials, gives “herd _____” and prevents a serious outbreak of the disease.

(A) mentality

(B) immunity

(C) contagion

(D) conviviality

(E) vulnerability

2. After his novel had been rejected by several publishers, the critic wrote _____ and inappropriately about every work of fiction that crossed his desk.

(A) mercilessly

(B) disinterestedly

(C) justifiably

(D) dispassionately

(E) impartially

3. The audience, initially _____, soon listened with _____ attention to the spellbinding orator.

(A) frustrated . . . objective

(B) restive . . . sporadic

(C) skeptical . . . periodic

(D) indifferent . . . rapt

(E) aggressive . . . erratic

4. Ms. Benning graciously chose to _____ the election to her opponent once it was clear that the voters had rejected her bid for office.

(A) supersede

(B) concede

(C) transmit

(D) transfer

(E) supplant

5. Having chosen a _____ dessert, the diner _____ for the increased caloric intake by eating very little of the main course.

(A) tiny . . . strove

(B) light . . . reached

(C) minimal . . . argued

(D) low-calorie . . . opted

(E) rich . . . compensated

6. Despite _____ planning, the team was surprised by the strength of its opponents.

(A) incomplete

(B) oppressive

(C) meticulous

(D) premature

(E) untimely

7. Over the course of several tours of duty, the _____ recruit became a battle-tested soldier.

(A) raw

(B) enlisted

(C) veteran

(D) patriotic

(E) loyal

8. May, known for her _____ nature, should look for a telephone plan that allows an unlimited number of minutes.

(A) taciturn

(B) reserved

(C) loquacious

(D) diffident

(E) combative

Directions for Questions 9–12: Choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passages or in the introductory material.

These two passages focus on scientific discovery. They are excerpted from Scientific American Inventions and Discoveries by Rodney Carlisle (Wiley).

9. According to Passage I, the crank was

(A) always a part of everyday life

(B) invented in a laboratory

(C) discovered in China in a.d. 31

(D) created to fulfill everyday needs

(E) overlooked until the 1600s

10. Passage I discusses “rotary motion” and “reciprocating motion” (Lines 10–12) as

(A) types of motion transformed by cranks

(B) necessary processes of extracting water from a well

(C) inventions popular in the 1600s

(D) types of motion with limited applications

(E) incompatible with cranks

11. In the context of Line 18, “holding” may best be defined as

(A) gripping

(B) embracing

(C) believing

(D) storing

(E) grasping

12. In contrast to the process of invention described in Passage I, the discovery of elements recounted in Passage II

(A) is practical rather than theoretical

(B) begins with a theory, not with an everyday need

(C) is more modern

(D) takes place over a longer span of time

(E) contains a magical element

Directions for Questions 13–24: Choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passage or in the introductory material.

This passage focuses on the work of Muhammed Yunus, an economist and banker from Bangladesh who created the Grameen Bank to give small loans to those too poor to qualify for traditional loans. The passage is excerpted from Small Loans, Big Dreams by Alex Counts (Wiley).

13. As used in Line 11, “pilot project” is best defined by which other phrase from the passage?

(A) “a model that he could replicate more than a thousand times” (Lines 4–5)

(B) “circles where poverty and environmental issues are discussed” (Lines 14–15)

(C) “Tiny programs tailored to local needs” (Lines 16–17)

(D) “a tiny percentage of the world’s poor” (Lines 22–23)

(E) “solutions that have been proven effective on a small scale” (Lines 28–29)

14. The author’s objections to pilot projects include all of the following EXCEPT that they

(A) involve too few people

(B) often apply only to a specific situation

(C) can’t be reproduced

(D) are too expensive

(E) operate on a small scale

15. The comment that “Tiny programs . . . are romanticized” implies that such programs

(A) aren’t evaluated fairly

(B) bring people together

(C) are seen as impractical

(D) can accomplish more than programs with more limited goals

(E) contrast unfavorably with government efforts

16. Lines 32–34, which reference “the interconnected mesh of social, environmental, and economic injustices that are tearing at the insides of humanity,” imply that

(A) poverty causes environmental ­problems

(B) poor people are unjustly deprived in several different ways

(C) wealthy people look down upon the poor

(D) economic troubles should be solved through the justice system

(E) wealthy and poor people have much in common

17. From the information given in the fourth paragraph (Lines 35–50), the reader understands that the Grameen Bank

(A) was never controlled by Muhammed Yunus

(B) became successful almost immediately

(C) relies on a uniform business strategy

(D) gives its employees too little power

(E) allows its managers a great deal of autonomy

18. Lines 46–50 (“the conditions that gave rise to . . . their duties”)

(A) indicate that Yunus’s critics were correct when they “predicted disaster” (Line 55)

(B) are an example of the “trial and error” mentioned in Line 46

(C) show that the “managing director’s faith in the ability of people to use credit well” (Lines 52–53) was misplaced

(D) reveal the need for Yunus “to monitor everything” (Lines 55–56)

(E) contradict the claim that Bangladeshis were “lacking the skills for middle management and business ownership” (Lines 58–59)

19. The purpose of the sixth paragraph (Lines 61–70) is to

(A) urge support for international relief efforts

(B) exaggerate the magnitude of the problems faced by the Grameen Bank

(C) indicate the scope of poverty in Bangladesh

(D) explain that the Grameen Bank has competitors

(E) show that the achievements of the Grameen Bank are not unique

20. The critics of the Grameen Bank most likely favor programs that focus on which of the following?

I. Better education

II. Universal health care

III. Political power for the poor

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) III only

(D) all of the above

(E) none of the above

21. The author refers to the “magic bullet that some accused Yunus as touting” to show that

(A) Yunus’s critics accurately represented his beliefs

(B) Yunus’s critics misinterpreted his beliefs

(C) more than the efforts of one man are necessary to reduce poverty

(D) Yunus boasted of his success

(E) Yunus himself did not believe that his efforts would be successful

22. In the context of Line 92, what is the best definition of “conscious”?

(A) aware

(B) alert

(C) awake

(D) deliberate

(E) intentional

23. With which saying would Muhammed Yunus be most likely to agree?

(A) Small is beautiful.

(B) Imitation is the highest form of flattery.

(C) The love of money is the root of all evil.

(D) A penny saved is a penny earned.

(E) A fool and his money are soon parted.

24. The author’s attitude toward Muhammed Yunus may be characterized as

(A) skeptical

(B) admiring

(C) congratulatory

(D) sympathetic

(E) dispassionate

Section 3

Mathematics

Time: 25 minutes for 20 questions

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Notes:

 You may use a calculator.

 All numbers used in this exam are real numbers.

 All figures lie in a plane.

 All figures may be assumed to be to scale unless the problem specifically indicates otherwise.

There are 360 degrees of arc in a circle.

There are 180 degrees in a straight line.

There are 180 degrees in the sum of the interior angles of a triangle.

1. If four more than a number is the same as three times the number, the number must be

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

(E) 5

2. Based on the triangle above, which statement is true?

(A) a > b > c

(B) a > c > b

(C) b > c > a

(D) b > a > c

(E) c > b > a

3. Which of the following number lines represents the solution to the inequality ?

4. A store sign advertised, “All Coats _____% Off,” but someone had forgotten to write in the correct percentage. If a coat that usually costs $75 was on sale for $60, what was the missing percentage?

(A) 15

(B) 20

(C) 25

(D) 40

(E) 80

5. Given that a + c = 7 and b – c = 4, a + b must equal

(A) –11

(B) –3

(C) 3

(D) 7

(E) 11

6. What is the length of side b in the triangle above?

(A)

(B) 5

(C)

(D)

(E) 25

7. The graph above represents f(x). If g(x) = 2f(x) – 3, then g(2) =

(A) –5

(B) –2

(C) –1

(D) 1

(E) 5

8. If (x + y)2 = 53 and (x – y)2 = 37, then xy =

(A) 4

(B) 16

(C) 45

(D) 90

(E) It cannot be determined from the information given.

9. If a dart is thrown at the dartboard above, the probability that the dart lands in the square but not in the circle is closest to

(A) 10%

(B) 20%

(C) 25%

(D) 50%

(E) 80%

10. Let x~y be defined as . For what value of x does x~3 = x?

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 3

(E) 4

11. Which of the following must be true for x, given that x is a negative integer?

(A) x ≥ –x

(B) x ≥ x2

(C) ≥ x3

(D) x ≥ 1⁄x

(E) x ≥ x⁄2

12. If three consecutive odd integers have a sum of –15, the smallest of the three integers equals

(A) –7

(B) –6

(C) –5

(D) –4

(E) –3

13. 25% of the marbles in a jar are red. After 20 red marbles are added to the jar, 50% of the marbles are now red. How many total marbles were originally in the jar?

(A) 12

(B) 16

(C) 20

(D) 40

(E) 80

14. If a–2/3 = 9, then a =

(A)

(B) –6

(C)

(D)

(E) 27

15. Gasoline is being poured into a cylindrical container with a radius of 5 feet and a height of 6 feet. Originally, the gasoline was stored in the box-shaped container shown here. Roughly how many of these containers would be needed to fill the tank completely?

(A) 8

(B) 10

(C) 12

(D) 15

(E) 20

16. Line l passes through the origin and has a slope of 2⁄3. Line m is perpendicular to line l and intersects it at the point (–6, –4). Where does line m cross the y-axis?

(A) (0, –18)

(B) (0, –13)

(C) (0, –8)

(D) (0, 5)

(E) (–82⁄3, 0)

17. The diagram above shows the possible routes from Benjamin’s home to his school. He always walks only north and east, and he makes sure to always walk at least one block on Elm Avenue. How many different routes can he take to get to school?

(A) Three

(B) Four

(C) Five

(D) Six

(E) Seven

18. Two circles lie in a plane and share the same center but have different radii. A line is drawn such that the line never enters the smaller circle. What is the maximum number of total points at which the line could touch the circles?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

(E) 5

19. A list of three integers has an average (arithmetic mean) of 6. If the median of the numbers is –1, what is the smallest positive number that could appear in the list?

(A) 1

(B) 6

(C) 18

(D) 20

(E) 21

20. In the figure above, OAC is one quarter of a circle with a radius of 8. If AB = OC, then the area of the shaded region is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)

Section 4

Critical Reading

Time: 25 minutes for 24 questions

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Directions for Questions 1–5: Select the answer that best fits the meaning of the sentence.

Example: After he had broken the dining room window, Hal’s mother _____ him.

(A) selected

(B) serenaded

(C) fooled

(D) scolded

(E) rewarded

The answer is (D).

1. Artists, however realistic their styles, are not content merely to record a scene but rather strive to _____ it.

(A) document

(B) beautify

(C) symbolize

(D) interpret

(E) represent

2. The outcasts searched for a path out of the _____ and into the fertile _____ of acceptance.

(A) wilderness . . . fields

(B) cities . . . streets

(C) towns . . . heavens

(D) wasteland . . . void

(E) desert . . . marsh

3. The shopper _____ through the stores in a leisurely way, more interested in passing time than acquiring items.

(A) plodded

(B) strolled

(C) stomped

(D) strutted

(E) charged

4. Their _____ romantic bliss soon gave way to boredom, interspersed with the usual tensions of everyday life.

(A) core

(B) leading

(C) initial

(D) final

(E) foremost

5. Antiquated handwriting is characterized by fancy _____, quite alien to the clean, modern lines favored today.

(A) austerity

(B) rigor

(C) flexibility

(D) flourishes

(E) simplicity

Directions for Questions 6–9: Read the following passages, and choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passages.

The first passage is an excerpt from Jean Jacques Rousseau’s Emile. The second is an excerpt from an autobiographical novel written by James Weldon Johnson in the early 20th century.

6. The author probably wrote the above passage after observing babies who were

(A) playing in a playpen

(B) nursing from a bottle

(C) wrapped in a blanket

(D) bareheaded

(E) ill

7. Which of the following best expresses the meaning of “constitution” (Line 12) in the context of this passage?

(A) government

(B) establishment

(C) organization

(D) official document

(E) health

8. The narrator’s attitude toward his father may best be described as

(A) hostility

(B) anger

(C) antagonism

(D) indifference

(E) concealed joy

9. The narrator’s comment that he couldn’t “rise to this dramatic, or, better, melodramatic, climax” (Lines 10–11) implies that he

(A) believes that he is in a theater

(B) thinks his mother’s expectations are unrealistic

(C) fears that he will disappoint his father

(D) understands the importance of the moment

(E) dislikes any show of emotion

Directions for Questions 10–18: Read the following passage, and choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passage.

10. Based on evidence from the passage, which of the following is probably true about “Excenus 23” (Line 2)?

I. It is an area of Earth.

II. It has a dry climate.

III. It is a fantasy world created by the ­narrator.

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) III only

(D) II and III only

(E) none of the above

11. The narrator’s statement that “This time is bad in a different way, with no sharp edges” (Lines 11–12) indicates that the ­narrator

(A) has adapted to the situation

(B) is upset about final examinations

(C) feels a general depression

(D) is extremely upset but reluctant to admit it

(E) hides his or her feelings

12. The “Test” referred to in Line 18 is

(A) waiting for exam results

(B) grades on the Finals

(C) pleasing one’s parents

(D) a dental exam

(E) competition for top grades

13. Which of the following best expresses the meaning of “tough enough to break a molar on” (Line 19)?

(A) a common, painful situation

(B) containing an obstacle that must be avoided

(C) tough, but a natural part of life

(D) so difficult that one falls apart

(E) hard enough to damage a sturdy body part

14. The narrator’s reference to “a three-weeks’ chicken got to get back in its shell” (Lines 43–44) implies that

(A) the narrator has outgrown her home

(B) the narrator can’t wait to leave Earth

(C) the narrator feels stranded

(D) returning home is desirable

(E) the narrator must struggle to break free of her father

15. The narrator and B Laydon differ in that B

(A) generally gets better grades than the narrator

(B) wants to return to her parents

(C) is more likely to criticize adults

(D) is interested in art

(E) likes the water

16. The narrator and B Laydon want to be “away from the rest” (Line 48) probably because the other students

(A) did worse on their exams

(B) didn’t like B Laydon and the narrator

(C) were more willing to leave Earth

(D) were afraid of being so close to water

(E) had additional exams

17. The declaration that “I shall miss even the Sea” reveals the narrator’s

(A) hatred of water

(B) plans to avoid the Island

(C) attachment to her life on the Island

(D) regret at losing other aspects of life on Earth

(E) commitment to sailing

18. Given the narrator’s reference to “Carpe Diem,” which of the following actions is likely?

(A) B and the narrator will stay on the island.

(B) The narrator will find a way to return to Earth.

(C) The father will visit the narrator.

(D) The narrator will sail in a boat.

(E) The narrator will refuse to leave Earth.

Directions for Questions 19–24: Read the following passage, which is from The Universal Book of Astronomy from the Andromeda Galaxy to the Zone of Avoidance by David J. Darling (Wiley)Answer the questions following the passage by choosing the best answer.

19. The “global dichotomy” (Line 9) is

(A) an impact of massive proportions

(B) a split between those who believe that life exists on Mars and those who don’t

(C) a border

(D) two different surface textures and ages

(E) linear features

20. In the context of Line 14, which of the ­following best expresses the meaning of ­“harbors”?

(A) ports

(B) anchorages

(C) shelters

(D) refuges

(E) embraces

21. Percival Lowell’s observations of Mars (Lines 16–17) led him to conclude that

(A) living beings constructed highways or canals on Mars

(B) Mars changes color because of disturbances in its dust

(C) meteorites struck Mars

(D) microbes lived on Mars

(E) Mars was lifeless

22. According to the passage, all of the following statements about Mars are true EXCEPT

(A) Mars has enough water to sustain life.

(B) Some microbes on Earth could survive on Mars.

(C) Human beings have been fascinated by the possibility of life on Mars.

(D) Mars expeditions have discovered evidence of extinct life forms.

(E) Mars expeditions have not found evidence of living beings.

23. The statement that “interest has been rekindled” (Line 24) implies which of the following?

(A) Scientists never give up.

(B) For a period of time, people discounted the possibility of life on Mars.

(C) Funding for Mars expeditions is dependent upon scientists’ interests.

(D) Scientific experiments are variable.

(E) Evidence of life on Mars is difficult to obtain.

24. In the context of Line 31, “hardy” may best be defined as

(A) enduring

(B) difficult

(C) tiny

(D) extreme

(E) independent

Section 5

Mathematics

Time: 25 minutes for 18 questions

Directions: This section contains two different types of questions. For Questions 1–8, choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. For Questions 9–18, follow the separate directions provided before those questions.

Notes:

 You may use a calculator.

 All numbers used in this exam are real numbers.

 All figures lie in a plane.

 All figures may be assumed to be to scale unless the problem specifically indicates otherwise.

There are 360 degrees of arc in a circle.

There are 180 degrees in a straight line.

There are 180 degrees in the sum of the interior angles of a triangle.

1. Which of the following points is farthest from 2 on a number line?

(A) –2

(B) 1⁄2

(C)

(D) 2.2

(E)

Questions 2 and 3 refer to the following chart.

2. The chart shows the profit a company made on two products over a five-year period. During what year was the company’s total profit the greatest?

(A) 2000

(B) 2001

(C) 2002

(D) 2003

(E) 2004

3. Between which two years did Product X have the largest percent increase in profit?

(A) 2000 and 2001

(B) 2001 and 2002

(C) 2002 and 2003

(D) 2003 and 2004

(E) 2004 and 2005

4. In the figure above, if APC is a straight line and line l bisects angle DPC, what is the measure of the angle marked w?

(A) 40°

(B) 50°

(C) 60°

(D) 70°

(E) 80°

5. A store sells T-shirts for $15.00 each. If you buy 2, 3, or 4 shirts, every shirt after the first is 20% off. After this, every shirt after the fourth is 50% off the original price. An expression that represents the total cost, C, of buying n shirts, where > 4, would be

(A) C = 15n

(B) C = 15 + 12(n – 1) + 7.50(n – 4)

(C) C = 15 + 12(n – 4) + 7.5n

(D) C = 51 + 7.5(n – 4)

(E) C = 51 + 7.5n

6. If j is positive and k is negative, which of the following is the greatest?

(A) j + k

(B) j – k

(C) jk

(D) k – j

(E) k ÷ j

7. If the line segment marked h in the figure above is 5 cm long, then the perimeter of triangle ABC equals

(A) 10

(B)

(C) 20

(D)

(E) 30

1 1 2 1 2 3 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 5 . . .

8. The number above begins with a “1”, then continues “12,” “123,” “1234,” and so on until the number “9” is reached. How many digits are in the final number?

(A) 36

(B) 40

(C) 45

(D) 54

(E) 81

Directions for student-produced response Questions 9–18: Solve the problem and then write your answer in the boxes on the answer sheet. Mark the ovals corresponding to your answer, as shown in the following example. Note the fraction line and the decimal points.

Although you do not have to write the solutions in the boxes, you do have to blacken the corresponding ovals. You should fill in the boxes to avoid confusion. Only the blackened ovals will be scored. The numbers in the boxes will not be read.

There are no negative answers.

Mixed numbers, such as 31⁄2, must be gridded in as decimals (3.5) or as fractions (7⁄2). Do not grid in 31⁄2; it will be read as 31⁄2.

Grid in a decimal as far as possible. Do not round your answer and leave some boxes empty.

A question may have more than one answer. Grid in only one answer.

9. At a certain school, each student has an ID number containing three digits. The number may not begin with a zero, and may not end with a 7, 8, or 9. How many possible ID numbers are there?

10. Lorraine jogged for 8 minutes at a rate of 400 feet per minute, then walked for 2 minutes at a rate of 200 feet per minute. What was her average speed during this time, in feet per minute?

11. Find n if 32n = 22n + 33.

12. Let a number be “pretty” if it is divisible by 5. Let a number be “friendly” if it only contains even digits (42, for example). Let a number be “happy” if its digits add up to 10 (523, for example). Find the smallest number that is pretty, friendly, and happy.

13. At South Side High School, one-half of the juniors have English class second period, one-third of the juniors have English class fifth period, and 12 students have English class sixth period. If every student has exactly one English class, how many students are in the junior class?

14. In the drawing above, . Find the value of w in degrees.

15. Find a value of x which satisfies x2 + x = 72.

16. If x + 11 = 5y and 3x – 11 = 9y, find the value of .

17. Given that point P in the drawing above lies on the graph of y = x2, and that the area of triangle NOP is 108, find a.

18. Given  and g(x) = x – 8, find the value of x for which f(x) = g(x).

Section 6

Multiple-Choice Writing

Time: 25 minutes for 35 questions

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Directions for Questions 1–11: Each sentence is followed by five choices. Choose the answer that best improves the sentence. If the underlined portion of the sentence is best left alone, choose (A).

Example: Bert and him went to the store to buy boots in preparation for the approaching storm.

(A) Bert and him went

(B) Bert and he went

(C) Bert and he had gone

(D) Bert and him had gone

(E) Bert and himself went

The correct answer is (B).

1. The building inspector arriving in ten minutes, the construction manager instructed the brick layers to complete the wall quickly.

(A) The building inspector arriving

(B) The building inspector will be arriving

(C) Because of the building inspector arriving

(D) Since the building inspector would have arrived

(E) Because the building inspector would arrive

2. The actor specialized in a nasal twang, sounding as if he swallowed a balloon.

(A) sounding as if he swallowed a balloon

(B) sounding as if he had swallowed a balloon

(C) sounding like a balloon he swallowed

(D) and he sounded as if he swallowed a balloon

(E) and he sounded as if he would have swallowed a balloon

3. The fierce gusts of wind from this storm, now approaching the coast, breaks previous records for that area.

(A) breaks previous records for that area

(B) breaks records for that area that were made previously

(C) break previous records for that area

(D) previously breaks records for that area

(E) breaks the area’s previous records

4. The plane, which was flying low over the city, and which was equipped with special lenses to capture night images, despite the low levels of light.

(A) and which was equipped with special lenses to capture night images

(B) was equipped with special lenses to capture night images

(C) equipped as it was with special lenses to capture night images

(D) being equipped with special lenses to capture night images

(E) because it was equipped with special lenses capturing night images

5. The jury discussed the matter whether the defendant should be found guilty, considering the fact that the defense attorney presented compelling reasons for acquittal.

(A) the matter whether the defendant should be found guilty

(B) the matter as to whether the defendant should be found guilty

(C) the defendant’s being found guilty, if it was right

(D) whether the defendant should be found guilty

(E) either finding the defendant guilty or not

6. The passengers waited five hours to be evacuated from the derailed train, fortunately no one was injured.

(A) the derailed train, fortunately no one was injured

(B) the derailed train, fortunately, no one was injured

(C) the derailed train; fortunately no one was injured

(D) the derailed train although fortunately no one was injured

(E) the derailed train, it was fortunate that no one was injured

7. Being as it was suspicious, the old bones the janitor found were preserved for inspection by police officers.

(A) Being as it was suspicious, the old bones the janitor found were preserved

(B) Suspiciously, the janitor’s discovery of old bones was preserved for inspection

(C) Being that it was suspicious, the old bones the janitor found were preserved

(D) The janitor preserved the old bones found suspiciously

(E) Because the old bones were suspicious, the janitor preserved them

8. The chalk dust and mold in that classroom may cause health problems for those who spend time there.

(A) may cause health problems for those who spend time there

(B) may be causing people, spending time there, health problems

(C) may cause one who spends time there health problems

(D) may cause health problems for the ones spending time there

(E) perhaps causing health problems for those spending time there

9. The new electronic reading device, capable of containing hundreds of books and lightweight as well for easy travel.

(A) device, capable of containing

(B) device, and it is capable of containing

(C) device, capable to contain

(D) device is capable of containing

(E) device, being capable of containing

10. Because of the slow economy, the luxury department store is selling their merchandise at bargain-basement prices.

(A) is selling their merchandise

(B) are selling their merchandise

(C) sells their merchandise

(D) is selling its merchandise

(E) having sold their merchandise

11. One factor matters more than deficit spending, depletion of the Federal Reserve funds, and a high unemployment rate: that consumers are confident.

(A) rate: that consumers are confident

(B) rate: consumer confidence

(C) rate; how confident consumers are

(D) rate, how confident consumers are

(E) rate; consumers being confident

Directions for Questions 30–35: These questions are based on the following essay. Choose the best answer to each question.

30. Which of the following would be the best revision, if any, of Sentences 1 and 2?

(A) The ladder I bought last week has a sticker on it. The sticker tells me that I “could be injured” if I fall off the ladder. (no change)

(B) The ladder I bought last week has a sticker on it; it tells me that I “could be injured” if I fall off.

(C) The ladder I bought last week has a sticker on it, which tells me that I “could be injured” if I fall off.

(D) According to the sticker, I “could be injured” by me falling off the ladder I bought last week.

(E) The ladder I bought last week has a sticker warning me that I “could be injured” if I fall off.

31. Which of these sentences, if any, should be inserted between Sentences 3 and 4?

(A) Leave unchanged.

(B) I understand the ladder manufacturer’s fear, because some people sue for injuries they themselves should have prevented.

(C) I am not the only one who could sue; others do too.

(D) Lawsuits, which worry the ladder company, happen at times, even when they should not.

(E) I won’t sue because I won’t fall off the ladder, but sometimes people do get hurt.

32. To improve the logical structure of this essay, which change should the writer make?

(A) Leave unchanged.

(B) Move Sentence 6 to the end of the first paragraph. Begin the second paragraph with Sentence 7.

(C) Move Sentences 7 and 8 to the end of the first paragraph.

(D) Delete Sentence 6.

(E) Begin the essay with Sentence 6.

33. How should Sentence 11 be revised?

(A) When a person get hurt from a product that isn’t designed properly, they should be able to sue and get their medical bills paid. (no change)

(B) When a person gets hurt from a product that isn’t designed properly, you should be able to sue and get your medical bills paid.

(C) When people get hurt from a product that isn’t designed properly, they should be able to sue and get their medical bills paid.

(D) People can be injured by their products, that aren’t designed properly, and they should sue for medical expenses.

(E) Injured by a product that isn’t designed properly, they should be able to sue and get their medical bills paid.

34. Which of the following is the best revision of Sentence 12?

(A) Leave unchanged.

(B) Omit.

(C) Combine it with Sentence 13.

(D) Move it to the end of the essay.

(E) Insert it before Sentence 1.

35. Which is the primary strategy used in this essay?

(A) narration

(B) description

(C) examples

(D) quotations

(E) symbolism

Section 7

Critical Reading

Time: 20 minutes for 19 questions

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Directions for Questions 1–6: Select the answer that best fits the meaning of the sentence.

Example: After he had broken the dining room window, Hal’s mother _____ him.

(A) selected

(B) serenaded

(C) fooled

(D) scolded

(E) rewarded

The answer is (D).

1. Studies show that teenagers often _____ parental advice and turn instead to _____.

(A) accept . . . friends

(B) reject . . . peers

(C) consider . . . experts

(D) ponder . . . relatives

(E) respect . . . grandparents

2. “I am not _____,” declared the host. “I am open to all opinions, if they are supported by evidence and logic.”

(A) dogmatic

(B) flexible

(C) dictatorial

(D) assertive

(E) repressive

3. In addition to capturing vast amounts of data, the newest scientific instruments also _____ the information.

(A) survey

(B) gather

(C) probe

(D) analyze

(E) appraise

4. The cause of vertigo, or dizziness, may not always be _____ unless other physical symptoms are present.

(A) examined

(B) investigated

(C) ascertained

(D) theorized

(E) instituted

5. The grueling ordeal that marathon runners undergo may take a toll, but _____ athletes minimize the chances of injury.

(A) motivated

(B) physical

(C) optimistic

(D) recreational

(E) fit

6. To make the bill more _____ to voters, the senator added an amendment that phased in the tax increase.

(A) palatable

(B) abhorrent

(C) interesting

(D) diverting

(E) onerous

Directions for Questions 7–19: Choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or implied in the passages or in the introductory material.

Both passages discuss Death Valley, an area in the western United States.

7. In the context of Line 9, “wash” may best be defined as

(A) clean snow

(B) bathing in water

(C) a coating of snow

(D) area eroded by water

(E) a surge of water

8. Which statement about the narrator and his fellow traveler in Passage I is true?

(A) They are tired from hiking all day.

(B) The narrator and his fellow traveler cannot agree on a course of action.

(C) They are in danger of death.

(D) Their advance planning saves their lives.

(E) They compete for food and water.

9. Which statement most likely reflects the views of the travelers in Passage I?

(A) One for all and all for one.

(B) Every man for himself.

(C) Absence makes the heart grow fonder.

(D) You don’t know what you have until you lose it.

(E) No news is good news.

10. The author of Passage II would probably see the “brush” referred to in Line 26 as evidence of

(A) “cheerful adaptations” (Lines 49–50)

(B) “tropical luxuriance” (Line 52)

(C) “full stature” (Line 61)

(D) “stocky stems” (Lines 70–71)

(E) “blossoming twigs” (Lines 73–74)

11. The narrator in Passage I sees their early start as “providential” (Line 40) for which of the following reasons?

I. The travelers knew that ice would melt in the heat of the day.

II. The travelers started early to avoid the heat of the day.

III. The travelers found the ice by chance.

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) III only

(D) I and II

(E) II and III

12. Why do desert plants “shame us” (Line 49)?

(A) Plants are more adaptable than people.

(B) Plants provide flowers and fruit.

(C) Human actions harm the environment.

(D) Humans use plants without thinking.

(E) Some plant species attain greater height than is possible for human beings.

13. Which of the statements below best expresses the meaning of “One hopes the land may breed like qualities in her human offspring” (Lines 58–59)?

(A) Human beings, like plants, should conserve energy.

(B) Human beings should cultivate the same survival skills seen in desert plants.

(C) Human beings should be more in tune with nature.

(D) A natural habitat should be respected.

(E) Trying isn’t good enough.

14. The author of Passage II cites all of the following as factors influencing the survival of desert plants EXCEPT

(A) size

(B) shape

(C) age

(D) foliage

(E) dunes

15. According to Passage II, why is desert death a “tragedy” (Line 79)?

(A) Travelers don’t understand how difficult it is to cross the desert.

(B) Most deaths are preventable.

(C) Help is not available when travelers need it.

(D) Many die because they are not aware of nearby water sources.

(E) Desert maps are unreliable.

16. Which of the following best defines “sink” in the context of Line 86?

(A) basin

(B) submerge

(C) desert

(D) subsurface

(E) water source

17. The “mummies” (Line 87) are

(A) artifacts of an ancient civilization

(B) animals preserved by the dry climate

(C) the remains of travelers

(D) the bodies of desert dwellers

(E) museum exhibits

18. Which comment would the author of Passage II be most likely to make to the travelers described in Passage I?

(A) You should have stayed away from the desert.

(B) It was your responsibility to be aware of all water sources.

(C) You must prepare well in order to have a safe journey.

(D) You should have looked for landmarks.

(E) On arrival, adapt yourself to the desert environment.

19. In comparison with Passage I, Passage II is

(A) more creative

(B) more specific

(C) more personal

(D) more scientific

(E) less idealistic

Section 8

Mathematics

Time: 20 minutes for 16 questions

Directions: Choose the best answer to each question. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

Notes:

 You may use a calculator.

 All numbers used in this exam are real numbers.

 All figures lie in a plane.

 All figures may be assumed to be to scale unless the problem specifically indicates otherwise.

There are 360 degrees of arc in a circle.

There are 180 degrees in a straight line.

There are 180 degrees in the sum of the interior angles of a triangle.

1. The area of the right triangle pictured above is

(A) 21 cm2

(B) 36 cm2

(C) 42 cm2

(D) 54 cm2

(E) 108 cm2

2. The solution set to the equation x2 = x is

(A) {0}

(B) {1}

(C) {0, 1}

(D) {–1, 0}

(E) {–1, 1}

3. The ratio of seniors to juniors in a certain club is 5:3. If there are 40 students in the club, then the number of juniors is

(A) 3

(B) 15

(C) 23

(D) 24

(E) 25

4. Which of the following patterns could be folded up into a six-sided rectangular box, without making any cuts?

5. In a certain board game, the number of points you earn in each round is a linear function of the number of spaces you control at the end of the round. If you control 3 spaces, you win 10 points. If you control 5 spaces, you win 16 points. If you control 8 spaces, the number of points you win would be

(A) 6

(B) 22

(C) 25

(D) 26

(E) 160

6. Regular pentagon ABCDE has sides of length x. Regular pentagon FGHIJ has sides of length 2x. If the area of pentagon ABCDE is 20, then the area of pentagon FGHIJ is

(A) 40

(B) 80

(C) 100

(D) 200

(E) 400

7. Find n if 

(A) 2

(B) 14

(C) 20

(D) 44

(E) 620

8. Asked to estimate an equation for the data pictured above, a student drew a line connecting points A and B. The equation that would most closely fit this line would be

(A) y = –3x + 100

(B) y = 3x + 100

(C)

(D) y = –3x + 95

(E)

9. Sergei decided to give everyone else in his study group 3 candies each, planning to have 2 left over for himself. However, one member of the group was sick; as a result, he gave 4 candies to everyone who showed up, and there was only one left over for him. How many candies were originally in the bag?

(A) 5

(B) 13

(C) 17

(D) 29

(E) 34

10. In this figure, each side of the large center square is twice as long as each side of the four medium-sized squares. Each side of the medium-sized squares is twice as long as each side of the four small squares. If the small squares have sides of length 1 cm, find the perimeter of the entire figure.

(A) 40 cm

(B) 52 cm

(C) 60 cm

(D) 64 cm

(E) 80 cm

11. At a family reunion, 4 men have a grandson present, 12 have a son present, and 21 have a father present. What is the minimum number of men that could be at the reunion?

(A) 21

(B) 25

(C) 29

(D) 33

(E) 37

12. In a certain triangle, angle X is twice the size of angle Y, and angle Z is 45 degrees smaller than angle X. Triangle XYZ must be

I. A right triangle

II. An isosceles triangle

III. An equilateral triangle

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) III only

(D) I and II

(E) I and III

13. Points E, F, G, and H lie on a number line, but not in that order (in either direction). If the distance EG = 23, GH = 11, and F is the midpoint of EH, then the distance FH must equal

(A) 6

(B) 11

(C) 12

(D) 17

(E) 34

14. and b are both positive integers greater than one. If a is a factor of both b + 2 and b – 3, then b could equal

(A) 21

(B) 25

(C) 29

(D) 33

(E) 37

15. Ms. Belton’s class and Ms. Jimenez’s class have no students in common. If 45 percent of Ms. Belton’s students play a sport, 30 percent of Ms. Jimenez’s students play a sport, and 40 percent of the students in the two classes combined play a sport, which statement must be true?

(A) The two classes have the same number of students.

(B) The two classes have 30 students total.

(C) Ms. Belton’s class has exactly 20 students.

(D) Ms. Jimenez’s class has twice as many students as Ms. Belton’s.

(E) Ms. Belton’s class has twice as many students as Ms. Jimenez’s.

16. The drawing above shows four identical triangles surrounding a smaller square. Given that AB = 10, find the area of the square.

(A)

(B)

(C) 25

(D)

(E) 50

Section 9

Multiple-Choice Writing

Time: 10 minutes for 14 questions

Directions: Choose the one answer that best improves the sentence. Mark the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. If the underlined portion of the sentence is best left alone, choose (A).

Example: Bert and him went to the store to buy boots in preparation for the approaching storm.

(A) Bert and him went

(B) Bert and he went

(C) Bert and he had gone

(D) Bert and him had gone

(E) Bert and himself went

The correct answer is (B).

1. Both jumping off the sofa, a flash of lightning exploded over our heads and thunder echoed in our ears.

(A) Both jumping off the sofa,

(B) Both of us jumping off the sofa,

(C) We jumped off the sofa because

(D) We had jumped off the sofa because

(E) Jumping off the sofa,

2. The theater company applied for a variety of grants, but only was given funds by the National Endowment for the Arts.

(A) but only was given funds by the National Endowment for the Arts

(B) but the National Endowment for the Arts only gave them funds

(C) but it only was given funds by the National Endowment for the Arts

(D) but only the National Endowment for the Arts gave them funds

(E) but it was only from the National Endowment for the arts that they were given funds

3. Parents objected to the fact that in this term’s exercise classes, students studied neither good nutrition nor how exercise is beneficial for health.

(A) neither good nutrition nor how regular exercise is beneficial

(B) neither how good nutrition nor regular exercise is beneficial

(C) neither the benefits of good nutrition nor regular exercise

(D) the benefits of neither good nutrition nor regular exercise

(E) no good nutrition, and they didn’t learn about regular exercise

4. Skidding across the icy road and fighting to control the car, the winter storm frightened the driver.

(A) the winter storm frightened the driver

(B) the driver was frightened by the winter storm

(C) the winter storm, it frightened the driver

(D) the driver, who was frightened, in the winter storm

(E) the driver that was frightened by the winter storm

5. In a recent scientific survey, it showed that a simple checklist of safety precautions can reduce post-operative complications by 50%.

(A) In a recent scientific survey, it showed that a simple checklist of safety precautions

(B) In a recent scientific survey, it had showed that a simple checklist of safety precautions

(C) According to a recent scientific survey, a simple checklist of safety precautions

(D) In a recent scientific survey, showing that a simple checklist of safety precautions

(E) A simple checklist of safety precautions in a recent scientific survey, it

6. Prized for its ability to mimic human speech, mynah birds are popular pets in many parts of the world.

(A) Prized for its ability to mimic human speech

(B) Being prized for its ability to mimic human speech

(C) Prized for their ability to mimic human speech

(D) Because it is prized for its ability to mimic human speech

(E) Having been prized for their ability to mimic human speech

7. Director Alfred Hitchcock is equally as renowned for his suspense films as for his comedies.

(A) equally as renowned for his suspense films as for his comedies

(B) equally renowned for his suspense films as his comedies

(C) renowned in an equal way for his suspense films as for his comedies

(D) renowned equally as for his suspense films and for his comedies

(E) equally renowned for his suspense films and his comedies

8. In 1981, Sandra Day O’Connor became a Justice of the Supreme Court, she was the first female to hold that position.

(A) became a Justice of the Supreme Court, she was

(B) became a Justice of the Supreme Court and

(C) became a Justice of the Supreme Court, Justice O’Connor was

(D) had become a Justice of the Supreme Court, and she was

(E) by becoming a Justice of the Supreme Court, she was

9. The foundation moved its headquarters to New York ten years ago and was located on that city’s most elegant street, Park Avenue, until recently.

(A) moved its headquarters to New York ten years ago and was located

(B) moved its headquarters to New York ten years ago and has been located

(C) moved its headquarters to New York ten years ago, it being located

(D) moved its headquarters to New York ten years ago, being located

(E) moved its headquarters to New York ten years ago, located

10. The architects’ job is to try and design an energy-efficient, cost-effective structure.

(A) is to try and design

(B) is to try by designing

(C) is to try and to also design

(D) is to try and to design

(E) is to try to design

11. The ancient Mayans, performing human sacrifices in religious rituals, they understood the human circulatory system.

(A) Mayans, performing human sacrifices in religious rituals, they understood

(B) Mayans, performing human sacrifices in religious rituals, understood

(C) Mayans were performing human sacrifices in religious rituals, and they understood

(D) Mayans, who performed human sacrifices in religious rituals, they understood

(E) Mayans, performing human sacrifices in religious rituals, they were ­understanding

12. If I would have known about your allergy, I wouldn’t have served peanut-butter cookies.

(A) would have known about your allergy, I wouldn’t have served

(B) would know about your allergy, I wouldn’t have served

(C) knew about your allergy, I wouldn’t have served

(D) had known about your allergy, I wouldn’t have served

(E) would have known about your allergy, I wouldn’t serve

13. The park ranger spoke at length to the campers, Roger and he, who attempted to feed the animals.

(A) to the campers, Roger and he, who attempted

(B) to Roger and he, who were campers that had attempted

(C) to the campers, Roger and him, who attempted

(D) to the campers, Roger and him, they attempted

(E) to Roger and him, who attempted as campers

14. This is the only one of the books in that chef’s immense library that has a recipe for salt codfish.

(A) immense library that has

(B) immense library that have

(C) immense library, which has

(D) immense library, which have

(E) immense library, and it has